4002|X|What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?|The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.|The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights.|The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 nautical miles (NM).|||
4003|X|Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must|list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.|be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.|be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.|||
4004|X|The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated under|VFR.|IFR.|DVFR.|||
4005|X|If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for|30 minutes at slow cruising speed.|1 hour at normal cruising speed.|45 minutes at normal cruising speed.|||
4006|X|Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is|3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere.|3,000 feet over all terrain.|2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.|||
4007|X|If the aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace,|the pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class B airspace.|aircraft must immediately descend below 1,200 feet AGL and proceed to destination.|ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination.|||
4008|X|If a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions, what qualifying information must also be entered?|Place and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot.|Number and type of instrument approaches completed and route of flight.|Name and pilot certificate number of safety pilot and type of approaches completed.|||
4009|X|What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?|Only the time during which the instructor flies the aircraft by reference to instruments.|All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions.|All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor, regardless of weather conditions.|||
4010|X|Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?|Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.|All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.|Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.|||
4011|X|What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?|Private pilot.|Private pilot with instrument rating.|Appropriately rated in the aircraft.|||
4013|X|After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument competency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?|6 months.|12 months.|90 days.|||
4014|X|An instrument rated pilot, who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilot|passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, followed by 6 hours and six instrument approaches, 3 of those hours in the category of aircraft involved.|passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector.|completes the required 6 hours and six approaches, followed by an instrument proficiency check given by an FAA-designated examiner.|||
4015|X|A pilot's recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?|December 31, this year.|June 30, next year.|July 31, this year.|||
4016|X|What additional approaches, if any, must you perform to maintain IFR currency in a helicopter?\nWithin the past 6 months, you have accomplished:\nOne approach in a helicopter.\nTwo approaches in an airplane.\nTwo approaches in an approved simulator.|One approach in an airplane, helicopter, or approved simulator.|Two approaches in a helicopter and one approach in an approved simulator.|None.|||
4017|X|What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?|The approaches may be made in an aircraft, approved instrument ground trainer, or any combination of these.|At least three approaches must be made in the same category of aircraft to be flown.|At least three approaches must be made in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown.|||
4018|X|Under which condition may you act as pilot in command of a helicopter under IFR?\nYour certificates and ratings: Private Pilot Certificate with AMEL and Airplane instrument, rotorcraft category rating, and helicopter class rating.|If you meet the recent helicopter IFR experience requirements.|If you acquire a helicopter instrument rating and meet IFR currency requirements.|If a certificated helicopter instrument flight instructor is on board.|||
4021|X|How long does a pilot remain current for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument competency check if no further IFR flights are made?|12 months.|90 days.|6 months.|||
4023|X|What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency in an airplane?|A minimum of six in any approved instrument ground trainer or aircraft within the past 6 months.|A minimum of six, at least three of which must be in an aircraft within the past 6 months.|A minimum of six in an aircraft, at least three of which must be in the same category within the past 6 months.|||
4024|X|When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?|Flight through an MOA.|Flight into class A airspace.|Flight into an ADIZ.|||
4026|X|Which additional IFR experience allows you to meet the recent IFR experience requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?\nYour present instrument experience within the past 6 months is:\n1.  three hours with holding, intercepting and tracking courses in an approved airplane flight simulator.\n2.  two instrument approaches in an airplane.|Three hours of simulated or actual instrument flight time in a helicopter and two instrument approaches in an airplane or helicopter.|Four instrument approaches in an approved flight simulator that is representative of the airplane category.|Three instrument approaches in an airplane.|||
4028|X|A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire in an airplane at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least|an airplane instrument pilot rating.|an associated type rating if the airplane is of the multiengine class.|a First-Class Medical Certificate.|||
4029|X|You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single engine airplane within a 25 mile radius of the departure airport. You are required to possess at least which rating(s)?|A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine land rating.|A Private Pilot Certificate with a single engine land and instrument airplane rating.|A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine and instrument (airplane) rating.|||
4030|X|Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of a helicopter in IMC if you hold a Private Pilot Certificate with ASEL, airplane instrument rating, rotorcraft category, and helicopter class rating?|No, you must hold either an unrestricted Airline Transport Pilot-Helicopter Certificate or a helicopter instrument rating.|Yes, if you comply with the recent IFR experience requirements for a helicopter.|No, however, you may do so if you hold an Airline Transport Pilot-Helicopter Certificate, limited to VFR.|||
4031|X|Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?|When operating in class E airspace.|For any flight above an altitude of 1,200 feet AGL, when the visibility is less than 3 miles.|For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.|||
4032|X|What are the minimum fuel requirements for airplanes in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,|fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.|fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.|and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.|||
4033|X|Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must|be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.|list an alternate airport on the flight plan and become familiar with the instrument approaches to that airport.|list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.|||
4034|X|Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?|The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.|The carrying of passengers for hire on cross country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.|That person is limited to private pilot privileges at night.|||
4035|X|To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross country flights of more than 50 NM from the departure airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at least|a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.|a Category II pilot authorization.|a First Class Medical certificate.|||
4036|X|When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR?|Within the preceding 30 days or 30 hours of flight time.|Within the preceding 30 days.|Within the preceding 10 days or 10 hours of flight time.|||
4037|X|In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above|12,500 feet MSL.|10,000 feet MSL.|Flight level (FL) 180.|||
4038|X|A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace|at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL.|at and above 2,500 feet above the surface.|below 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL.|||
4039|X|Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet FAR requirements for a particular instrument flight?|Pilot in command.|Owner.|Operator.|||
4040|X|What are the fuel requirements for a night IFR flight in a helicopter when an alternate airport is not required?|Enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, make an approach, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at cruising speed.|Enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at cruising speed.|Enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing and fly after that for 30 minutes.|||
4041|X|When an alternate airport is required for helicopters on the flight plan, you must have sufficient fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, fly to the alternate, and thereafter fly for at least|45 minutes at normal cruising speed.|30 minutes at normal cruising speed.|45 minutes at holding speed.|||
4042|X|If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12,500 feet MSL, but not more than 14,000 feet MSL, for a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen?|1 hour 20 minutes.|2 hours 20 minutes.|1 hour 50 minutes.|||
4043|X|A helicopter being operated under IFR is required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least|a slip skid indicator.|distance measuring equipment.|dual VOR receivers.|||
4044|X|Which data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?|Date of check, VOR name or identification, place of operational check, and amount of bearing error.|Place of operational check, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature.|VOR name or identification, date of check, amount of bearing error, and signature.|||
4045|X|What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?|10,500 feet.|12,500 feet.|12,000 feet.|||
4046|X|What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other permanent record by the pilot making the VOR operational check?|The date, place, satisfactory or unsatisfactory, and signature.|The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of flight hours since last check, and signature.|The date, place, bearing error, and signature.|||
4047|X|Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on January 5, of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by|January 5, 2 years hence.|January 31, 2 years hence.|January 5, next year.|||
4048|X|Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?|VOR within 30 days, altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months.|ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months.|VOR within 24 calendar months, transponder within 24 calendar months, and altimeter system within 12 calendar months.|||
4049|X|An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must be accomplished within|12 calendar months.|18 calendar months.|24 calendar months.|||
4050|X|Where is DME required under IFR?|In positive control areas.|At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.|Above 18,000 feet MSL.|||
4051|X|An aircraft operated during IFR under FAR Part 91 is required to have which of the following?|Dual VOR system.|Radar altimeter.|Gyroscopic direction indicator.|||
4052|X|What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?|12,500 feet.|14,000 feet.|15,000 feet.|||
4053|X|What is the oxygen requirement for an unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?|All occupants must use oxygen for the entire time at this altitude.|Crew must start using oxygen at 12,000 feet and passengers at 15,000 feet.|Crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen only above 15,000 feet.|||
4054|X|When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?|6° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.|Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR.|4° between the two indicated bearings of a VOR.|||
4055|X|What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?|VOR/LOC receiver, transponder, and DME.|VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting.|Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.|||
4056|X|You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find that the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you|must return to the parking area and have the instrument corrected by an authorized instrument repairman.|may not take off until the instrument is corrected by either the pilot or a mechanic.|may take off and use 100 feet descent as the zero indication.|||
4057|X|To meet the requirements for flight under IFR, a helicopter must be equipped with certain operable instruments and equipment. One of those required is|a clock with sweep second pointer or digital presentation.|a transponder with altitude reporting capability.|a radar altimeter.|||
4058|X|How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field?|You may close your flight plan any time after starting the approach by contacting any FSS or ATC facility.|The ARTCC controller will close your flight plan when you report the runway in sight.|Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.|||
4059|X|When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?|Any time a landing is planned at an intermediate airport.|Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR.|When requested or advised by ATC.|||
4060|X|When filing a composite flight plan where the first portion of the flight is IFR, which fix(es) should be indicated on the flight plan form?|Only those compulsory reporting points on the IFR route segment.|All points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix.|Only the fix where you plan to terminate the IFR portion of the flight.|||
4061|X|What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?|Upon reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact the nearest FSS and cancel your VFR flight plan, then contact ARTCC and request an IFR clearance.|Prior to reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact ARTCC, request your IFR clearance, and instruct them to cancel the VFR flight plan.|Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance.|||
4062|X|When is an IFR flight plan required?|In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.|In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.|When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.|||
4063|X|Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?|Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.|Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace.|Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.|||
4064|X|To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to|entering weather conditions below VFR minimums.|entering controlled airspace.|takeoff.|||
4065|X|To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to|entering controlled airspace.|controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments.|entering weather conditions in any airspace.|||
4066|X|When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?|When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.|When operating in the Class E airspace.|When operating in a Class A airspace.|||
4067|X|Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan? |Positive control area, Continental Control Area, and all other airspace, if the visibility is less than 1 mile.|Class E airspace with IMC and class A airspace.|Any airspace when the visibility is less than 1 mile.|||
4068|X|When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before|entering Class E airspace.|entering IFR conditions.|takeoff.|||
4069|X|What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight?|A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach.|A reporting point defined by the intersection of two VOR radials.|A location on a victor airway which can only be identified by VOR and DME signals.|||
4070|X|Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix via|direct route only.|a standard instrument departure (SID), or radar vectors.|the established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.|||
4071|X|For which speed variation should you notify ATC?|When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.|When the groundspeed changes more than 5 knots.|Any time the groundspeed changes 10 MPH.|||
4072|X|(Refer to figure 1.) Which item(s) should be checked in block 1 for a composite flight plan?|IFR with an explanation in block 11.|VFR with an explanation in block 11.|VFR and IFR.|||
4073|X|(Refer to figure 1.) The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity?|Total useable fuel on board.|The amount of fuel required to fly to the destination airport, then to the alternate, plus a 45 minute reserve.|Total fuel required for the flight.|||
4074|X|(Refer to figure 1.) What information should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude? |Altitude for first leg.|Highest altitude.|Altitude for first leg and highest altitude.|||
4075|X|(Refer to figure 1.) Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form? |DME, transponder, and RNAV.|DME, transponder, and ADF.|DME, ADF, and airborne radar.|||
4076|X|When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?|Only in VFR conditions outside positive controlled airspace.|Only if an emergency occurs.|Any time.|||
4077|X|Which airspaces are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?|Class D, Class C, Class B, Class E and special use airspace.|Special use airspace, Class E, Class D, Class A, Class B and Class C.|Class A, special use airspace, Class D and Class E.|||
4078|X|Where are the compulsory reporting points, if any, on a direct flight not flown on radials or courses of established airways or routes?|There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.|Fixes selected to define the route.|At the changeover points.|||
4079|X|Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?|Aeronautical Information Manual, aeronautical charts, and Distant (D) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM's).|Airport Facility Directory, Distant (D) NOTAM's, and Local (L) NOTAM's.|Airport Facility Directory, FDC NOTAM's, and Local (L) NOTAM's.|||
4080|X|What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?|To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.|To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.|To provide the latest information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcasts.|||
4081|X|What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an airport that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?|1,000 foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR.|800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility.|800 foot ceiling and 1 statute mile (SM) visibility.|||
4082|X|Is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?\nTAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030\nFM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB\nFM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608\n02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=|No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.|Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.|No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.|||
4083|X|What minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?|From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.|From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.|From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.|||
4084|X|Under what condition are you not required to list an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan for an IFR flight in a helicopter?|When the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2,000 feet and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport.|When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude within 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport.|When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude and the visibility is 2 miles more than the minimum landing visibility within 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport.|||
4085|X|What standard minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?|Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.|Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.|Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.|||
4086|X|What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?|The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.|The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.|The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR.|||
4087|X|What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?|600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA.|600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.|800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.|||
4088|X|Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?|NTSB Part 830.|FAR Part 91.|FAR Part 61.|||
4089|X|Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?|When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg.|When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter.|At standard temperature.|||
4090|X|Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?|When standard atmospheric conditions exist.|When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.|When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.|||
4091|X|Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?|Air temperature warmer than standard.|Air temperature lower than standard.|Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.|||
4092|X|Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?|The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes.|The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.|The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.|||
4093|X|When an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg to 29.96" Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?|Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.|Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.|Altimeter will indicate 15 feet lower.|||
4094|X|A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by|ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.|warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.|the movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement of warm air under cold air.|||
4095|X|How much colder than standard temperature is the actual temperature at 9,000 feet, as indicated in the following excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast?\nFT		6000		9000\n		0737-04		1043-10|3 °C.|7 °C.|10 °C.|||
4096|X|The primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather is|changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface.|movement of the air masses.|variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions.|||
4097|X|A characteristic of the stratosphere is|a relatively even base altitude of approximately 35,000 feet.|an overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude.|relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.|||
4098|X|Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of|cummuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.|stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.|stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.|||
4099|X|The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that|a cold front has passed.|there are thunderstorms in the area.|there is freezing rain at a higher altitude.|||
4100|X|Which conditions result in the formation of frost?|The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling.|Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is colder than freezing.|When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing.|||
4101|X|To which meteorological condition does the term ``dewpoint'' refer?|The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.|The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.|The temperature at which dew will always form.|||
4102|X|What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude?|The temperature is above freezing at your altitude.|You are flying from a warm air mass into a cold air mass.|The temperature is below freezing at your altitude.|||
4103|X|The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on|relative humidity.|stability of air.|air temperature.|||
4104|X|Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when|water vapor is present.|water vapor condenses.|the temperature and dewpoint are equal.|||
4105|X|What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?|The greater density of the air at the surface.|Surface friction.|Coriolis force.|||
4106|X|Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to|a stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.|stronger Coriolis force at the surface.|friction between the wind and the surface.|||
4107|X|What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000 feet above the surface and the surface winds?|The winds at 2,000 feet and the surface winds flow in the same direction, but the surface winds are weaker due to friction.|The winds at 2,000 feet tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker.|The surface winds tend to veer to the right of the winds at 2,000 feet and are usually weaker.|||
4108|X|Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?|Coriolis.|Centrifugal.|Pressure gradient.|||
4109|X|Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92" Hg?|When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.|In warmer than standard air temperature.|In colder than standard air temperature.|||
4110|X|Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?|Indicated.|Calibrated.|Pressure.|||
4111|X|Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates|pressure altitude at field elevation.|true altitude at field elevation.|pressure altitude at sea level.|||
4112|X|The most frequent type of ground  or surface based temperature inversion is that produced by|the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.|warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.|radiation on a clear, relatively still night.|||
4113|X|If the air temperature is +8 °C at an elevation of 1,350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?|9,350 feet MSL.|3,350 feet MSL.|5,350 feet MSL.|||
4114|X|What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?|An unstable layer of air.|A stable layer of air.|Air mass thunderstorms.|||
4115|X|What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced upslope?|Vertical clouds with increasing height.|First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds.|Stratified clouds with little vertical development.|||
4116|X|The general characteristics of unstable air are|poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds.|good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratiform type clouds.|good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds.|||
4117|X|Which is a characteristic of stable air?|Stratiform clouds.|Fair weather cumulus clouds.|Unlimited visibility.|||
4118|X|What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?|Layered clouds with little vertical development.|Clouds with extensive vertical development.|Stratified clouds with considerable associated turbulence.|||
4119|X|What are the characteristics of stable air?|Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumulus-type clouds.|Poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds.|Good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds.|||
4120|X|What are some characteristics of unstable air?|Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.|Turbulence and poor surface visibility.|Turbulence and good surface visibility.|||
4121|X|Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?|Low level winds.|Atmospheric pressure.|Ambient lapse rate.|||
4122|X|What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?|The amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.|The stability of the air before lifting occurs.|The method by which the air is lifted.|||
4123|X|Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear type icing in clouds?|Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.|Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting.|Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism.|||
4124|X|Unsaturated air flowing upslope will cool at the rate of approximately (dry adiabatic lapse rate)|3 °C per 1,000 feet.|2.5 °C per 1,000 feet.|2 °C per 1,000 feet.|||
4125|X|A temperature inversion will normally form only|in unstable air.|when a stratiform layer merges with a cumuliform mass.|in stable air.|||
4126|X|Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?|The start of rain at the surface.|Growth rate of cloud is maximum.|Strong turbulence in the cloud.|||
4127|X|Frontal waves normally form on|slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.|slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded fronts.|rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts.|||
4128|X|Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?|Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.|Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.|Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.|||
4129|X|Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?|Cumulonimbus.|Towering cumulus.|Altocumulus castellanus.|||
4130|X|Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate|an inversion.|unstable air.|turbulence.|||
4131|X|\nThe suffix "nimbus", used in naming clouds, means a|cloud with extensive vertical development.|raincloud.|dark massive, towering cloud.|||
4132|X|The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of|heavy icing conditions.|very strong turbulence.|a jetstream.|||
4133|X|Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?|High clouds.|Clouds with extensive vertical development.|Low clouds.|||
4134|X|What are the four families of clouds?|Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air.|Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus.|High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.|||
4135|X|Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? Choose the most complete answer.|In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the right side of the cell.|In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.|On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.|||
4136|X|Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?|Clouds, either ahead or behind the front.|A wind change.|An abrupt decrease in pressure.|||
4137|X|Where do squall lines most often develop?|Ahead of a cold front.|In a cold air mass.|In an occluded front.|||
4138|X|Where does wind shear occur?|With either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.|Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature.|Exclusively in thunderstorms.|||
4139|X|What is an important characteristic of wind shear?|It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.|It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.|It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.|||
4140|X|Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?|With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.|With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.|Turbulence will always exist in wind shear conditions.|||
4141|X|What is indicated by the term ``embedded thunderstorms''?|Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass.|Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line.|Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.|||
4142|X|If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?|Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.|Peak gusts of at least 35 knots for a sustained period of 1 minute or longer.|Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 15 knots to a peak of 20 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute.|||
4143|X|During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?|Cumulus.|Mature.|Dissipating.|||
4144|X|Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?|Heavy rain showers.|Supercooled raindrops.|Lightning.|||
4145|X|Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?|Warm front.|Squall line.|Air mass.|||
4146|X|Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?|Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions.|Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude.|Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.|||
4147|X|What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage?|A gust front forms.|The anvil top has completed its development.|Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base.|||
4148|X|What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?|Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.|A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate.|A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture.|||
4149|X|Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate|turbulence at and below the cloud level.|poor visibility.|smooth flying conditions.|||
4150|X|What is an important characteristic of wind shear?|It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone.|It is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence.|The Coriolis phenomenon in both high  and low level air masses is the principal generating force.|||
4151|X|Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?|Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.|Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil.|Frost decreases control effectiveness.|||
4152|X|In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?|Cumulonimbus clouds.|Freezing rain.|High humidity and freezing temperature.|||
4153|X|What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?|You have flown into an area of thunderstorms.|Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude.|You have flown through a cold front.|||
4154|X|The average height of the troposphere in the middle latitudes is|20,000 feet.|25,000 feet.|37,000 feet.|||
4155|X|A jetstream is defined as wind of|30 knots or greater.|40 knots or greater.|50 knots or greater.|||
4156|X|Under which condition does advection fog usually form?|Moist air moving over colder ground or water.|Warm, moist air settling over a cool surface under no wind conditions.|A land breeze blowing a cold air mass over a warm water current.|||
4157|X|A high cloud is composed mostly of|condensation nuclei.|ozone.|ice crystals.|||
4158|X|An air mass is a body of air that|covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.|has similar cloud formations associated with it.|creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth's surface.|||
4159|X|What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?|Cyclonic movement.|Advective action.|Upward currents.|||
4160|X|If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?|Constant altitude and constant airspeed.|Level flight attitude.|Constant airspeed (VA).|||
4161|X|Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?|Ice pellets.|Hail.|Snow.|||
4162|X|Which weather condition can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a colder surface?|Fog.|Increased visibility.|Convective turbulence due to surface heating.|||
4163|X|Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because of|atmospheric stabilization around cities.|increased temperatures due to industrial heating.|an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products.|||
4164|X|In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?|A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.|Warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface under no wind conditions.|An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.|||
4165|X|In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur?|Level inland areas.|Coastal areas.|Mountain slopes.|||
4166|X|What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist?|Steam fog and downslope fog.|Advection fog and upslope fog.|Precipitation induced fog and ground fog.|||
4167|X|What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?|Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.|The movement of cold air over much warmer water.|Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.|||
4168|X|The strength and location of the jetstream is normally|stronger and farther north in the winter.|weaker and farther north in the summer.|stronger and farther north in the summer.|||
4169|X|Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?|Moist air moving over colder ground or water.|Cloudy sky and a light wind moving saturated warm air over a cool surface.|Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dewpoint spread, and over a land surface.|||
4170|X|The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a|15 to 20 mile radius of the center of an airport.|5 to 10 mile radius of the center of an airport.|10 to 15 mile radius of the center of an airport.|||
4171|X|Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can|reduce lift by as much as 50 percent and increase drag by as much as 50 percent.|reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.|increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 25 percent.|||
4172|X|What wind direction and speed is represented by the entry 9900+00 for 9,000 feet, on an Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)?|Light and variable; less than 5 knots.|Light and variable; less than 10 knots.|Vortex winds exceeding 200 knots.|||
4173|X|What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500 millibar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL 180?|Winds aloft at FL 180 generally flow across the height contours.|Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dewpoint spread along the proposed route can be approximated.|Upper highs, lows, troughs, and ridges will be depicted by the use of lines of equal pressure.|||
4174|X|What important information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?|Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.|Areas of cloud cover and icing levels within the clouds.|Types of precipitation between reporting stations.|||
4175|X|What does a Convective Outlook (AC) describe for a following 24 hour period?|General thunderstorm activity.|A severe weather watch bulletin.|When forecast conditions are expected to continue beyond the valid period.|||
4176|X|Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the planned ETA?|Area Forecast.|Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).|Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts.|||
4177|X|A calm wind entry in a Terminal Aerodome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is|6 knots or less.|3 knots or less.|9 knots or less.|||
4178|X|When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as|6PSM.|P6SM.|6SMP.|||
4179|X|"WND" in the categorical outlook in the Aviation Area Forecast means that the wind during that period is forecast to be|At least 15 knots or stronger.|At least 6 knots or stronger.|At least 20 knots or stronger.|||
4180|X|What is the forecast wind at 1800Z in the following TAF?\nKMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005=|Not recorded.|Unknown.|Calm.|||
4181|X|SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous|to all aircraft.|only to light aircraft operations.|particularly to light aircraft.|||
4182|X|What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation?\nMETAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN\nBLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42|Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet.|Runway 31 ceiling is 2700 feet.|Measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast.|||
4183|X|Which meteorological condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)?|Sustained winds of 30 knots or greater at the surface.|Widespread sand or duststorms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.|Moderate icing.|||
4184|X|A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?|Pilot weather reports (PIREP's), AIRMET's, and SIGMET's.|The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.|Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, and the Area Forecast.|||
4185|X|Which forecast provides specific information concerning expected sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, weather, and obstructions to vision in a route format?|DFW FA 131240.|249 TWEB 252317.|MEM TAF 132222.|||
4186|X|When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?|Unscheduled and issued as required.|Every 24 hours as required.|Every 12 hours as required.|||
4187|X|What is the maximum forecast period for AIRMET's?|Four hours.|Six hours.|Two hours.|||
4188|X|When is the temperature at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)?|When the temperature is standard for that altitude.|For the 3,000 foot altitude (level) or when the level is within 2,500 feet of station elevation.|Only when the winds are omitted for that altitude (level).|||
4189|X|When is the wind group at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)? When the wind|is less than 10 knots.|is less than 5 knots.|at the altitude is within 1,500 feet of the station elevation.|||
4190|X|Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FD) for OKC at 39,000 feet.\nFT		3000	6000	39000\nOKC				830558|Wind 130° at 50 knots, temperature -58 °C.|Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58 °C.|Wind 330° at 205 knots, temperature -58 °C.|||
4191|X|Which values are used for winds aloft forecasts?|True direction and knots.|Magnetic direction and MPH.|Magnetic direction and knots.|||
4192|X|(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over PSB at FL 270? |280° true at 113 knots; ISA +3 °C.|260° magnetic at 93 knots; ISA +7 °C.|255° true at 93 knots; ISA +6 °C.|||
4193|X|(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over ALB at FL 270?|275( true at 97 knots; ISA +4 °C.|270° magnetic at 97 knots; ISA -4 °C.|260° true at 110 knots; ISA +5 (C.|||
4194|X|(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over EMI at FL 270?|260° magnetic; 100 knots; ISA -5 °C.|265° true; 100 knots; ISA +3 °C.|270° true; 110 knots; ISA +5 °C.|||
4195|X|What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?|Winds and temperatures aloft.|Levels of widespread cloud coverage.|Clear air turbulence and icing conditions.|||
4196|X|The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of 1,300 feet MSL.  From the bottom of the overcast cloud layer, what is its thickness?  (tops of OVC are reported at 3800 feet)\nSPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000 |500 feet.|1,700 feet.|2,500 feet.|||
4197|X|(Refer to figure 9.) The Severe Weather Outlook Chart depicts|areas of general thunderstorm activity (excluding severe) by the use of hatching on the chart.|areas of probable severe thunderstorms by the use of single hatched areas on the chart.|areas of forecast, severe or extreme turbulence, and areas of severe icing for the next 24 hours.|||
4198|X|Which response most closely interprets the following PIREP?\nUA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA -04/WV 245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR.|63 nautical miles on the 64 degree radial from Oklahoma City, thunderstorm and light rain at 1522 UTC.|64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial from Oklahoma City VOR at 1522 UTC, flight level 8,000 ft. Type of aircraft is a Cessna 172.|Reported by a Cessna 172, turbulence and light rime icing in climb to 8,000 ft.|||
4199|X|A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft at FL 390 to be 300° at 200 knots; temperature -54 °C. How would this data be encoded in the FD?|309954.|300054.|809954.|||
4200|X|Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?|Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds.|Light wind shear and poor visibility due to haze and light rain.|Turbulent air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.|||
4201|X|Area forecasts generally include a total forecast period of 18 hours and a geographical|group of states or well known area.|terminal area.|area less than 3000 sq. miles.|||
4202|X|A ceiling is defined as the height of the|lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast.|highest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers over 6/10 of the sky.|lowest layer of clouds that contributed to the overall overcast.|||
4203|X|The reporting station originating this Aviation Routine Weather Report has a field elevation of 620 feet. If the reported sky cover is one continuous layer, what is its thickness?  (tops of OVC are reported at 6500 feet)\nMETAR KMDW 121856Z AUTO 32005KT 1 1/2SM +RABR OVC007 17/16 A2980|5,180 feet.|5,880 feet.|5,800 feet.|||
4204|X|What is the wind shear forecast in the following TAF?\nTAF\nKCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008\nWS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG\nFM1930 09012KT 1SM -DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=|50 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.|5 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.|500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.|||
4205|X|What is meant by the entry in the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA?\nMETAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN\nBLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42|Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.|Heavy blowing snow and fog on runway 31.|The wind is variable from 290° to 360.|||
4206|X|(Refer to figure 4.) What is the meaning of a bracket (]) plotted to the right of the station circle on a weather depiction chart?|The station gives local overview of flying conditions for a six hour period.|The station represents the en route conditions within a 50 mile radius.|The station is an automated observation location.|||
4207|X|(Refer to figure 4.) The Weather Depiction Chart indicates the heaviest precipitation is occurring in|north central Minnesota.|north central Florida.|central South Dakota.|||
4208|X|(Refer to figure 4.) The Weather Depiction Chart in the area of northwestern Wyoming, indicates |overcast with scattered rain showers.|500-foot ceilings and continuous rain, less than 3 miles visibility.|1,000-foot ceilings and visibility 3 miles or more.|||
4209|X|The Surface Analysis Chart depicts|actual pressure systems, frontal locations, cloud tops, and precipitation at the time shown on the chart.|frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision at the time of chart transmission.|actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dewpoint, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart.|||
4210|X|A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as|light turbulence.|moderate turbulence.|light chop.|||
4211|X|The Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart depicts weather conditions|that are forecast to exist at a valid time shown on the chart.|that existed at the time shown on the chart which is about 3 hours before the chart is received.|as they existed at the time the chart was prepared.|||
4212|X|Which meteorological conditions are depicted by a prognostic chart?|Interpretation of weather conditions for geographical areas between reporting stations.|Conditions existing at the time of the observation.|Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart.|||
4213|X|(Refer to figure 5.) What is the meaning of the symbol depicted as used on the U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather Prog Chart?|Showery precipitation (e.g. thunderstorms/rain showers) covering half or more of the area.|Showery precipitation (e.g. rain showers) embedded in an area of continuous rain covering half or more of the area.|Continuous precipitation (e.g. rain) covering half or more of the area.|||
4214|X|A prognostic chart depicts the conditions|existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.|which presently exist from the 1,000 millibar through the 700 millibar level.|forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.|||
4215|X|What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?|It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours.|It indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 MB).|It describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 hours.|||
4216|X|(Refer to figure 18, SFC PROG) A planned low altitude flight from northern Florida to southern Florida at 00Z is likely to encounter|intermittent rain or rain showers, moderate turbulence, and freezing temperatures above 8,000 feet.|showery precipitation, thunderstorms/rain showers covering half or more of the area.|showery precipitation covering less than half the area, no turbulence below 18,000 feet, and freezing temperatures above 12,000 feet.|||
4217|X|(Refer to figure 18, SFC-400MB.) The 24-Hour Low Level Significant Weather Prog at 12Z indicates that southwestern West Virginia will likely experience|ceilings less than 1,000 feet, visibility less than 3  miles.|clear sky and visibility greater than 6 miles.|ceilings 1,000 to 3,000 feet and visibility 3 to 5 miles.|||
4218|X|(Refer to figure 18, SFC-400MB.) The U.S. Low Level Significant Weather Surface Prog Chart at 00Z indicates that northwestern Colorado and eastern Utah can expect |moderate or greater turbulence above FL 240.|no turbulence is indicated.|moderate or greater turbulence from the surface to FL 240.|||
4219|X|(Refer to figure 18, SFC-PROG.) The chart symbols shown in the Gulf of Mexico at 12Z and extending into AL, GA, SC, and northern FL indicate a|hurricane.|tropical storm.|tornado originating in the Gulf of Mexico.|||
4220|X|Interpret this PIREP.\nMRB UA/OV MRB/TM1430/FL060/TPC182/SK BKN BL/WX RA/TB MDT.|Ceiling 6,000 feet intermittently below moderate thundershowers; turbulence increasing westward.|FL 60,000, intermittently below clouds; moderate rain, turbulence increasing with the wind.|At 6,000 feet; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain.|||
4221|X|(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow E? |Frequent embedded thunderstorms, less than one eighth coverage, tops at FL 370.|Frequent cumulonimbus, five eighths to eight eighths coverage, bases below 24,000 feet MSL and tops at 37,000 feet MSL.|Frequent lightning in thunderstorms at FL 370.|||
4222|X|(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow D? |Forecast isolated thunderstorms, tops at FL 410, less than two fifths coverage.|Forecast isolated embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 24,000 feet MSL, tops at 41,000 feet MSL and less than one eighth coverage.|Existing isolated cumulonimbus, tops above 41,000 feet and less than one fifth coverage.|||
4223|X|(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow C? |Moderate turbulence at FL 320 within the area outlined by dashes.|Moderate to severe CAT has been reported at FL 320.|Severe CAT forecast within the area outlined by dashes from 32,000 feet MSL to below the lower limit of the chart.|||
4224|X|(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow B? |Moderate to severe turbulence from below 24,000 feet MSL to 33,000 feet MSL.|Light to moderate turbulence at and above 33,000 feet MSL.|Moderate to severe CAT is forecast to exist at FL 330.|||
4225|X|(Refer to figure 7.) What information is indicated by arrow A?|The height of the existing layer of CAT.|The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.|The height of the tropopause in meters above sea level.|||
4226|X|Which weather forecast describes prospects for an area coverage of both severe and general thunderstorms during the following 24 hours?|Convective outlook.|Severe Weather Watch Bulletin.|Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.|||
4227|X|Which feature is associated with the tropopause?|Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.|Absence of wind and turbulent conditions.|Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.|||
4228|X|From which primary source should you obtain information regarding the weather expected to exist at your destination at your estimated time of arrival?|Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.|Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Chart.|Weather Depiction Chart.|||
4229|X|(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow F? |Occasionally embedded cumulonimbus, bases from 18,000 feet to 51,000 feet.|Two eighths to six eighths coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, tops at FL 510.|One eighth to four eighths coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, maximum tops at 51,000 feet MSL.|||
4230|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow A on the Radar Summary Chart?|Strong to very strong echoes; echo tops 30,000 feet MSL; thunderstorms and rain showers.|Moderate to strong echoes; echo tops 30,000 feet MSL; line movement toward the northwest.|Weak to moderate echoes; average echo bases 30,000 feet MSL; cell movement toward the southeast; rain showers with thunder.|||
4231|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow D on the Radar Summary Chart?|Intense to extreme echoes within the smallest contour, echo tops 29,000 feet MSL, and cell movement toward the northeast at 50 knots.|Echo tops 4,100 feet MSL, strong to very strong echoes within the smallest contour, and area movement toward the northeast at 50 knots.|Strong to very strong echoes within the smallest contour, echo bases 29,000 feet MSL, and cell in northeast Nebraska moving northeast at 50 knots.|||
4232|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow C on the Radar Summary Chart?|Average echo bases 2,800 feet MSL, thundershowers, and intense to extreme echo intensity.|Cell movement toward the northwest at 20 knots, intense echoes, and echo bases 28,000 feet MSL.|Area movement toward the northeast at 20 knots, strong to very strong echoes, and echo tops 28,000 feet MSL.|||
4233|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow B on the Radar Summary Chart?|Strong echoes, moderate rain showers, no cell movement.|Weak echoes, heavy rain showers, area movement toward the southeast.|Weak to moderate echoes, rain showers increasing in intensity.|||
4234|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow E on the Radar Summary Chart?|Thundershowers decreasing in intensity; area movement toward northwest at 15 knots; echo bases 30,000 feet MSL.|Highest echo tops 30,000 feet MSL, weak to moderate echoes, thunderstorms and rain showers, and cell movement toward northwest at 15 knots.|Echo bases 29,000 to 30,000 feet MSL, strong echoes, rain showers increasing in intensity, and area movement toward northwest at 15 knots.|||
4235|X|For most effective use of the Radar Summary Chart during preflight planning, a pilot should|utilize the chart as the only source of information regarding storms and hazardous conditions existing between reporting stations.|consult the chart to determine more accurate measurements of freezing levels, cloud cover, and wind conditions between reporting stations.|compare it with the charts, reports, and forecasts of a three-dimensional picture of clouds and precipitation.|||
4236|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow G on the Radar Summary Chart?|Strong to very strong echoes; area movement toward northeast at 15 knots; echo tops 10,000 feet MSL; light rain.|Area movement toward northeast at 15 knots; rain decreasing in intensity; echo bases 1,000 feet MSL; strong echoes.|Echo bases 10,000 feet MSL; cell movement toward northeast at 15 knots; weak to moderate echoes; rain.|||
4237|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow F on the Radar Summary Chart?|Line of echoes; thunderstorms; highest echo tops 45,000 feet MSL; no line movement indicated.|Echo bases vary from 15,000 feet to 46,000 feet MSL; thunderstorms increasing in intensity; line of echoes moving rapidly toward the north.|Line of severe thunderstorms moving from south to north; echo bases vary from 4,400 feet to 4,600 feet MSL; extreme echoes.|||
4238|X|Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground|during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.|during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots.|during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valleys.|||
4239|X|(Refer to figure 9.) The Severe Weather Outlook Chart, which is used primarily for advance planning, provides what information?|A 24-hour severe weather outlook for possible general and severe thunderstorm activity.|An 18-hour categorical outlook with a 48-hour valid time for severe weather watch, thunderstorm lines, and of expected tornado activity.|A preliminary 12-hour outlook for severe thunderstorm activity and probable convective turbulence.|||
4240|X|(Refer to figure 9.) What is the significance of the annotation "SVR" in the hatched area on the 12Z 26 AUG panel?|Moderate risk area, surrounded by a slight risk area, of possible severe turbulence.|Possibility of severe thunderstorms.|Chance of severe low-level wind shear.|||
4241|X|The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of|SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecasts Alerts (AWW), and Center Weather Advisiories.|SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Wind Shear Advisiories, and Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW).|Wind Shear Advisories, Radar Weather Reports, SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).|||
4242|X|(Refer to figure 10.) The symbol on the TROP WIND SHEAR PROG indicated by arrow A represents the|wind direction at the tropopause (300°).|FL of the tropopause.|height of maximum wind shear (30,000 feet).|||
4243|X|(Refer to figure 20.) What is the maximum wind velocity forecast in the jet stream shown on the high level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart over Canada?|130.|80.|103.|||
4244|X|(Refer to figure 20.) What is the height of the tropopause over Kentucky? |34,000 feet - flight level.|34,000 feet MSL.|30,000 feet sloping to 40,000 feet MSL.|||
4245|X|(Refer to figure 10.) The reference to 6K (see arrow B) indicates |vertical wind velocity at 34,000 feet.|vertical wind shear per 1,000 feet.|wind velocity at 34,000 feet.|||
4246|X|(Refer to figure 12.) What is the approximate wind direction and velocity at 34,000 feet (see arrow C)?|330°/50 knots.|290°/50 knots.|090°/48 knots.|||
4247|X|(Refer to figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity on the Observed Winds Aloft Chart (see arrow A) is indicated from the|northeast at 35 knots.|southwest at 35 knots.|northwest at 47 knots.|||
4248|X|(Refer to figure 9.) The heavy line with an arrowhead delineates an area of probable general thunderstorm activity (AUG 25 panel) located|to the right of the line when facing in the direction of the arrow.|only in hatched areas.|to the right and inside the line extending south through Michigan, Oklahoma, and ending in North Carolina.|||
4249|X|(Refer to figure 12.) What is the approximate wind direction and velocity at CVG at 34,000 feet (see arrow A)?|040°/35 knots.|230°/35 knots.|097°/40 knots.|||
4250|X|(Refer to figure 12, arrow B.) What is the approximate wind direction and velocity at BOI (see arrow B)? |270°/55 knots.|250°/95 knots.|080°/95 knots.|||
4251|X|What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?|Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.|One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.|Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.|||
4252|X|Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as|8,000 feet per minute.|7,000 feet per minute.|6,000 feet per minute.|||
4253|X|An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of |90 knots.|40 knots.|80 knots.|||
4254|X|(Refer to figure 13.) If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur?|4 and 5.|3 and 4.|2 and 3.|||
4255|X|(Refer to figure 13.) When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power?|3.|1.|2.|||
4256|X|(Refer to figure 13.) The aircraft in position 3 will experience which effect in a microburst encounter?|Increasing tailwind.|Decreasing headwind.|Strong downdraft.|||
4257|X|(Refer to figure 13.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?|Strong tailwind.|Significant performance increase.|Strong updraft.|||
4258|X|(Refer to figure 13.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter? |Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft.|Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.|Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.|||
4259|X|(Refer to figures 21 and 21A, 22 and 22A, 23 and 23A, 24, 25 and 25A, and 26 and 26A.) After departing GJT and arriving at Durango Co., La Plata Co. Airport, you are unable to land because of weather.\nHow long can you hold over DRO before departing for return flight to the alternate, Grand Junction Co., Walker Field Airport?\nTotal useable fuel on board, 68 gallons.\nWind and velocity at 16,000, 2308-16°.\nAverage fuel consumption 15 GPH.|1 hour 33 minutes.|1 hour 42 minutes.|1 hour 37 minutes.|||
4260|X|(Refer to FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight from GJT to DRO.\nRoute of flight		Figure 21\nFlight log & MAG VAR	Figure 22\nEn route chart		Figure 24\nFT			12,000	18,000\nFNM			2408-05	2208-21|58 minutes.|1 hour 08 minutes.|1 hour 03 minutes.|||
4261|X|(Refer to figure 24.)  Proceeding southbound on V187, (vicinity of Cortez VOR) contact is lost with Denver Center. What frequency should be used to contact Denver Center?|108.4.|133.425.|122.2.|||
4262|X|(Refer to figures 22 and 24.) For planning purposes, what would the highest MEA be on the flight planned between Grand Junction, Walker Airport, and Durango, La Plata Co. Airport?|12,000 feet.|15,000 feet.|16,000 feet.|||
4263|X|(Refer to figure 24.) At what point should a VOR changeover be made from JNC VOR to MANCA intersection southbound on V187?|36 NM south of JNC.|74 NM south of JNC.|52 NM south of JNC.|||
4264|X|(Refer to figure 24.) What is the MOCA between JNC and MANCA intersection on V187?|12,000 feet MSL.|13,700 feet MSL.|10,900 feet MSL.|||
4265|X|(Refer to figures 21, 22, and 24.) What fuel would be consumed on the flight between Grand Junction Co. and Durango, Co. if the average fuel consumption is 15 GPH.|20 gallons.|25 gallons.|17 gallons.|||
4266|X|(Refer to figure 27.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan? |A.|T.|U.|||
4267|X|(Refer to figures 27 and 28.) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is -5 °C?|139 KCAS.|142 KCAS.|134 KCAS.|||
4268|X|(Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan.\nRoute of flight	Figures 27, 28, 29 and 29A, 30, and 31\nFlight log & MAG VAR	Figure 28\nGNATS ONE DEPARTURE and Excerpt from AFD 	Figure 30\nFT		3000	6000     9000\nOTH		0507	2006+03  2215-05|1 hour 20 minutes.|1 hour 10 minutes.|1 hour 15 minutes.|||
4269|X|(Refer to figure 30.) During the arc portion of the SID (GNATS1.MOURN), a left crosswind is encountered.  Where should the bearing pointer of an RMI be referenced relative to the wingtip to compensate for wind drift and maintain the 15 DME arc?|Behind the left wingtip reference point.|Behind the right wingtip reference point.|On the right wingtip reference point.|||
4270|X|(Refer to figure 30.) Using an average groundspeed of 120 knots, what minimum rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 4,100 feet as specified on the SID?|500 feet per minute.|400 feet per minute.|800 feet per minute.|||
4271|X|(Refer to figure 30.) Which restriction to the use of the OED VORTAC would be applicable?|R 333 beyond 30 NM below 6,500 feet.|R 210 beyond 35 NM below 8,500 feet.|R 251 within 15 NM below 6,100 feet.|||
4272|X|(Refer to figures 30 and 30A.) What is your position relative to GNATS intersection and the SID departure routing?|Left of departure course and have not passed GNATS.|On departure course and past GNATS.|Right of departure course and past GNATS.|||
4273|X|(Refer to figures 27 and 30.) To which maximum service volume distance from the OED VORTAC should you expect to receive adequate signal coverage for navigation at the flight planned altitude?|80 NM.|40 NM.|100 NM.|||
4274|X|(Refer to figures 29 and 29A.) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?|396 feet MSL.|365 feet MSL.|363 feet MSL.|||
4275|X|(Refer to figure 29.) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the control tower at Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?|0800   2300.|0600   0000.|0700   0100.|||
4276|X|(Refer to figure 29.) Using a groundspeed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?|555 feet per minute.|480 feet per minute.|415 feet per minute.|||
4277|X|(Refer to figure 32.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|R.|A.|C.|||
4278|X|(Refer to figure 32.) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is +8 °C?|154 KCAS.|157 KCAS.|163 KCAS.|||
4279|X|(Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan.\nRoute of flight 		Figures 32, 33, 34, 35, & 36\nFlight log & MAG VAR	Figure 33\nRNAV RWY 33 & Excerpt from AFD		Figure 36\nFT		3000	6000      9000	12000\nDAL		2027	2239+13   2240+08	2248+05 |1 hour 35 minutes.|1 hour 41 minutes.|1 hour 46 minutes.|||
4280|X|(Refer to figure 34.) At which altitude and location on V573 would you expect the navigational signal of the HOT VOR/DME to be unreliable?|3,000 feet at APINE intersection.|4,000 feet at ELMMO intersection.|2,600 feet at MARKI intersection.|||
4281|X|(Refer to figures 35 and 37.) What is your position relative to the CONNY intersection on the BUJ.BUJ3 transition?|Left of the TXK R 266 and past the BUJ R 065.|Right of the TXK R 270 and approaching the BUJ R 245.|Left of the TXK R-272 and approaching the BUJ R-059°.|||
4282|X|(Refer to figures 36A and 36B.)  Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?|After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.|When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.|Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF.|||
4283|X|(Refer to figures 32, 36, 36A, and 36B.) What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively for the S 33 approach procedure?|1,240 feet MSL; 1 SM.|1,280 feet MSL; 1 and 1/4 SM.|1,300 feet MSL; 1 SM.|||
4284|X|How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches?|Flight manual supplement.|GPS operator's manual.|Aircraft owner's handbook.|||
4285|X|(Refer to figures 36A and 36B.) What is the minimum number of waypoints required for the complete RNAV RWY 33 approach procedure including the IAF's and missed approach procedure? |Two waypoints.|One waypoint.|Three waypoints.|||
4286|X|(Refer to figures 35 and 35A.) At which point does the BUJ.BUJ3 arrival begin?|At BOGAR intersection.|At the BUJ VORTAC.|At the TXK VORTAC.|||
4287|X|(Refer to figure 34.) For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight on V573 from the HOT VORTAC to the TXK VORTAC? |13,999 feet MSL.|14,500 feet MSL.|16,000 feet MSL.|||
4288|X|(Refer to figure 38.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|R.|A.|C.|||
4289|X|(Refer to figure 38.) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is +05 °C?|139 KCAS.|133 KCAS.|129 KCAS.|||
4290|X|(Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan.\nRoute of flight		Figures 38, 39, and 40\nFlight log & MAG VAR	 Figure 39\nACTON TWO ARRIVAL 	 Figure 41\nFT		3000	6000	9000	12000\nABI		2033+13	2141+09	2142+05|1 hour 31 minutes.|1 hour 24 minutes.|1 hour 26 minutes.|||
4291|X|(Refer to figure 40.) For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight on V16 between the BGS and ABI VORTACs?|6,500 feet MSL.|17,000 feet MSL.|18,000 feet MSL.|||
4292|X|(Refer to figures 41 and 41A.) At which point does the AQN.AQN2 arrival begin?|CREEK intersection.|ACTON VORTAC.|ABI VORTAC.|||
4293|X|(Refer to figures 41 and 41A.) Which frequency would you anticipate using to contact Regional Approach Control? (ACTON TWO ARRIVAL).|124.15.|119.05.|125.8.|||
4294|X|(Refer to figures 41 and 41A.) On which heading should you plan to depart CREEK intersection? |350°.|010°.|040°.|||
4295|X|(Refer to figures 41, 42, 42A and 42B.) Which frequency should you expect to use for Regional Approach Control, control tower, and ground control respectively at DFW?|125.8; 124.15; 121.8.|119.05; 124.15; 121.8.|119.05; 126.55; 121.65.|||
4296|X|(Refer to figures 42A and 42B.) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency? |Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability.|Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability.|Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available.|||
4297|X|(Refer to figures 42, 42A and 42B.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?|15 feet.|18 feet.|22 feet.|||
4298|X|(Refer to figures 42A and 42B.) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots groundspeed.)|530 feet per minute.|425 feet per minute.|635 feet per minute.|||
4299|X|(Refer to figures 42A, 42B and 43.) What is your position relative to CHAAR intersection? The aircraft is level at 3,000 feet MSL.|Left of the localizer course approaching CHAAR intersection and below the glide slope.|Right of the localizer course, past CHAAR intersection and above the glide slope.|Right of the localizer course approaching CHAAR intersection and approaching the glide slope.|||
4300|X|(Refer to figure 44.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|A.|R.|C.|||
4301|X|(Refer to figure 44.) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is +5 °C?|150 KCAS.|147 KCAS.|154 KCAS.|||
4302|X|Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)\nRoute of flight	 	Figures 44, 45, 46, and 47\nFlight log & MAG VAR	Figure 45\nGROMO TWO DEPARTURE and Excerpt from AFD	Figure 46\nFT		3000	6000        9000	12000\nYKM		1615	1926+12     2032+08	2035+05|54 minutes.|1 hour 07 minutes.|1 hour 02 minutes.|||
4303|X|(Refer to figure 46.) Using an average groundspeed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 6,300 feet as specified on the SID?|816 feet per minute.|350 feet per minute.|583 feet per minute.|||
4304|X|(Refer to figures 46 and 48.) What is your position relative to the 9 DME ARC and the 206° radial of the SID?|Inside the 9 DME arc and approaching R 206.|On the 9 DME arc and approaching R 206.|Outside the 9 DME arc and past R 206.|||
4305|X|(Refer to figure 46.) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the ATIS for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect? |0600 to 2200 local.|0500 to 2100 local.|0700 to 2300 local.|||
4306|X|(Refer to figures 49 and 49A.) What should be used to establish the MAP on the LORAN RNAV RWY 10 approach at Portland International Airport? |6 NM from FAF.|3.5 NM from PONCO waypoint.|2.5 NM from FAF.|||
4307|X|(Refer to figures 44, 49 and 49A.) What is the MDA and visibility criteria during the LORAN RNAV RWY S-10R approach at Portland International?|900 MSL; visibility RVR/24.|900 MSL; visibility 1 and 1/4 SM.|900 MSL; visibility RVR/40.|||
4308|X|(Refer to figures 49 and 49A.) How many waypoints are required to fly the complete LORAN RNAV RWY 10 (Portland International) approach procedure, including the missed approach procedure?|3.|4.|2.|||
4309|X|(Refer to figures 49 and 49A.) What is the TDZE for RWY 10R at Portland International Airport?|26 feet MSL.|20 feet MSL.|900 feet MSL.|||
4310|X|(Refer to figures 49 and 49A.) The aircraft used on this flight has vertical guidance capability with the RNAV equipment. What is the angle of the glidepath from the FAF to the 2.5 DME from the MAP waypoint?|3.20°.|2.88°.|3.00°.|||
4311|X|(Refer to figures 49 and 49A.) At which point or fix may descent be initiated to the MDA on the LORAN RNAV RWY 10R approach (Portland International)?|6 NM from the MAP waypoint.|3.5 NM from PONCO waypoint.|WETTR waypoint.|||
4312|X|(Refer to figure 50.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|U.|R.|T.|||
4313|X|(Refer to figure 50.) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude? (Temperature 0 °C.)|147 KCAS.|136 KCAS.|140 KCAS.|||
4314|X|Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)\nRoute of flight		Figures 50, 51, 52, and 53\nFlight log and MAG VAR	Figure 5\nHABUT ONE DEPARTURE and Excerpt from AFD	Figure 52\nFT		3000	6000		9000\nSBA		0610	2115+05	2525+00|46 minutes.|43 minutes.|51 minutes.|||
4315|X|(Refer to figures 52 and 54.) What is the aircraft's position relative to the HABUT intersection? (The VOR 2 is tuned to 116.5.)|South of the localizer and past the GVO R 163.|North of the localizer and approaching the GVO R 163.|South of the localizer and approaching the GVO R 163.|||
4316|X|(Refer to figure 52.) Using an average groundspeed of 100 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified by the SID?|642 feet per minute.|425 feet per minute.|580 feet per minute.|||
4317|X|(Refer to figure 53.) Where is the VOR COP on V27 between the GVO and MQO VORTACs? |20 DME from MQO VORTAC.|30 DME from SBA VORTAC.|20 DME from GVO VORTAC.|||
4318|X|(Refer to figure 53.) What service is indicated by the solid square in the radio aids to navigation box for PRB VORTAC?|En Route Flight Advisory Service available.|Availability of HIWAS.|VOR with TACAN compatible DME.|||
4319|X|(Refer to figures 55 and 55A.) Using an average groundspeed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 2,400 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?|600 feet per minute.|200 feet per minute.|400 feet per minute.|||
4320|X|(Refer to figures 55 and 55A.) As a guide in making range corrections, how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one half mile deviation from the desired arc?|5° maximum.|2° to 3°.|10° to 20°.|||
4321|X|(Refer to figures 55 and 55A.) Under which condition should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment (Paso Robles Municipal Airport) is not in sight? |After descent to 1,440 feet or reaching the 1 NM DME, whichever occurs first.|When you reach the established missed approach point and determine the visibility is less than 1 mile.|After descending to 1,440 feet MSL.|||
4322|X|(Refer to figure 56.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|R.|U.|A.|||
4323|X|(Refer to figure 56.) What CAS should be used to obtain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is +5°?|97 KCAS.|101 KCAS.|103 KCAS.|||
4324|X|Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)\nRoute of flight		Figures 56, 57, 58, and 59\nFlight log & MAG VAR 	Figure 57\nExcerpt from AFD (CLL )	Figure 58\nFT		3000	6000	9000\nHOU		0507	1015+05	2225+00|1 hour 06 minutes.|1 hour 10 minutes.|1 hour 14 minutes.|||
4325|X|(Refer to figure 58.) On which frequencies could you receive the College Station FSS?|118.5, 122.65, 122.2.|122.65, 122.2.|122.65, 122.2, 122.1, 113.3.|||
4326|X|(Refer to figure 58.) Which indications on the VOR receivers and DME at the Easterwood Field VOR receiver checkpoint would meet the regulatory requirement for this flight?\nVOR	TO/FROM	VOR	TO/FROM	DME\nNo. 1				No. 2|097°	FROM	101°	FROM	3.3|097°	TO	096°	TO	3.2|277°	FROM	280°	FROM	3.3|||
4327|X|(Refer to figures 59 and 60.) What are the operating hours (local standard time) of the Houston EFAS? |0700 to 2300.|0600 to 2200.|1800 to 1000.|||
4328|X|(Refer to figures 56, 60A and 60B.) To which value may the visibility criteria be reduced, if any, for the S ILS 4 approach?|RVR 12.|RVR 20.|RVR 16.|||
4329|X|(Refer to figure 59.) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, what is the minimum equipment for navigation of helicopters on an IFR cross country flight when in the immediate vicinity of the HUMBLE VORTAC?|Transponder with 3/A 4096 code capability and two way communications.|VOR (or TACAN) and two way communications.|VOR receiver, transponder with 3/A 4096 code capability and two way communications.|||
4330|X|(Refer to figures 60A and 60B.) What is the DH and visibility criteria for a helicopter for the ILS RWY 4 approach if the MM is inoperative?|246/12.|246/24.|460/12.|||
4331|X|(Refer to figures 60A, 60B, and 61.) What is your position relative to the PLATS intersection, glide slope, and the localizer course? |Approaching PLATS, above the glide slope, and left of the localizer course.|Past PLATS, above the glide slope, and right of the localizer course.|Past PLATS, below the glide slope, and right of the localizer course.|||
4332|X|(Refer to figures 60A and 60B.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4? |46 feet MSL.|54 feet MSL.|70 feet MSL.|||
4333|X|(Refer to figure 62.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|U.|A.|R.|||
4334|X|(Refer to figure 62.) What CAS should be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is +15 °C? |96 KCAS.|101 KCAS.|91 KCAS.|||
4335|X|Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)\nRoute of flight		Figures 62, 63, 64, and 65\nFlight log & MAG VAR	Figure 63\nExcerpt from AFD (LFT)	Figure 64\nFT		3000	6000          9000\nMSY		1422	1626+15    1630+10|56 minutes.|1 hour 02 minutes.|1 hour 07 minutes.|||
4336|X|(Refer to figure 65.) Which point would be the appropriate VOR COP on V552 from the LFT to the TBD VORTACs?|34 DME from the LFT VORTAC.|CLYNT intersection.|HATCH intersection.|||
4337|X|(Refer to figure 64.) The course deviation indicator (CDI) are centered. Which indications on the No. 1 and No. 2 VOR receivers over the Lafayette Regional Airport would meet the requirements for the VOR receiver check?\n	VOR	TO/FROM	VOR	TO/FROM\n	No. 1			No. 2|341°	FROM	330°	FROM|160°	FROM	162°	FROM|162°	TO	346°	FROM|||
4338|X|(Refer to figures 65 and 66.) What is your position relative to GRICE intersection? |Right of V552 and past GRICE intersection.|Right of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection.|Left of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection.|||
4339|X|(Refer to figures 65 and 67.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection? |The localizer has an ATC function in addition to course guidance.|It signifies a localizer only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial.|GRICE intersection also serves as the FAF for the ILS approach procedure to Harry P. Williams Memorial.|||
4340|X|(Refer to figure 68 or 68A.) Upon which maximum airspeed is the COPTER VOR/DME 117° approach category based?|80 knots.|100 knots.|90 knots.|||
4341|X|(Refer to figure 68 or 68A.) What minimum visibility must exist to execute the COPTER VOR/DME 117° approach procedure?|3/4 mile.|1/4 mile.|1/2 mile.|||
4342|X|(Refer to figure 68 or 68A.) What is the VASI approach slope angle for RWY 12 at Houma Terrebonne?|3.0°.|2.5°.|2.8°.|||
4343|X|(Refer to figure 68 or 68A.) What would be the approach minimums if you must use the Moisant Field altimeter settings?|440 1.|480 and 1/2.|580 and 1/2.|||
4344|X|(Refer to figure 69.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|A.|U.|B.|||
4345|X|(Refer to figure 69.) What CAS should be used to maintain the filed TAS if the outside air temperature is +05 °C?|119 KCAS.|124 KCAS.|126 KCAS.|||
4346|X|Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)\nRoute of flight Figures	69, 70, and 71\nFlight log and MAG VAR	Figure 70\nJUDDS TWO ARRIVAL\n          and Excerpt from AFD	 Figures 72 and 72A\nFT		3000	6000         9000\nBDL		3320	3425+05   3430+00|1 hour 14 minutes.|50 minutes.|58 minutes.|||
4347|X|(Refer to figures 71 and 71A.) What is your position relative to the Flosi intersection Northbound on V213?|West of V213 and post the Flosi intersection.|West of V213 and approaching the Flosi intersection.|East of V213 and approaching the Flosi intersection.|||
4348|X|(Refer to figures 70 and 71.) Which VORTAC along the proposed route of flight could provide HIWAS information?|KINGSTON VORTAC.|SPARTA VORTAC.|HUGUENOT VORTAC.|||
4349|X|(Refer to figure 72 or 72A.) At which location or condition does the IGN.JUDDS2 arrival begin? |IGN VORTAC.|JUDDS intersection.|BRISS intersection.|||
4350|X|(Refer to figure 72.) How many precision approach procedures are published for Bradley International Airport?|One.|Three.|Four.|||
4351|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?|3,000 feet MSL.|1,690 feet MSL.|1,800 feet MSL.|||
4352|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight?|When reaching 374 feet MSL indicated altitude.|Upon reaching 374 feet AGL.|When 3 minutes (at 90 knots groundspeed) have expired or reaching 374 feet MSL, whichever occurs first.|||
4353|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) Which sequence of marker beacon indicator lights, and their respective codes, will you receive on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure to the MAP?|Amber - alternate dots and dashes; blue - dashes.|Blue - dashes; amber - alternate dots and dashes.|Blue - alternate dots and dashes; amber - dashes.|||
4354|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) Using an average groundspeed of 90 knots on the final approach segment, what rate of descent should be used initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?|480 feet per minute.|395 feet per minute.|555 feet per minute.|||
4355|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6?|200 feet AGL.|270 feet MSL.|174 feet MSL.|||
4356|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) After passing the OM, Bradley Approach Control advises you that the MM on the ILS RWY 6 approach is inoperative. Under these circumstances, what adjustments, if any, are required to be made to the DH and visibility? |No adjustments are required.|DH 424/24.|DH 374/24.|||
4357|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International? |HIRL, REIL, and VASI.|HIRL and VASI.|ALSF2 and HIRL.|||
4358|X|(Refer to figure 74.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|U.|T.|A.|||
4359|X|(Refer to figure 74.) What CAS should be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is +5 °C? |139 KCAS.|129 KCAS.|133 KCAS.|||
4360|X|Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)\nRoute of flight		Figures 74, 75, 76, 77, and 78\nFlight log & MAG VAR	Figure 75\nVOR indications\n     and Excerpts from AFD	Figure 76\nFT	6000	9000	12000	18000\nBIL	2414	2422+11	2324+05	2126-11|1 hour 25 minutes.|1 hour 20 minutes.|1 hour 15 minutes.|||
4361|X|(Refer to figure 77.) At which point does the basic SID terminate?|Over the BOZEMAN VOR.|At STAKK intersection.|When Helena Departure Control establishes radar contact.|||
4362|X|(Refer to figure 76.) Which indication would be an acceptable accuracy check of both VOR receivers when the airplane is located on the VOR receiver checkpoint at the Helena Regional Airport?|A.|C.|B.|||
4363|X|(Refer to figure 77.) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection? |1,400 feet MSL.|10,200 feet MSL.|6,500 feet MSL.|||
4364|X|(Refer to figure 77.) Using an average groundspeed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified on the SID? |475 feet per minute.|700 feet per minute.|350 feet per minute.|||
4365|X|(Refer to figures 76 and 77.) Which en route low altitude navigation chart would cover the proposed routing at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?|L 9.|L 2.|L 7.|||
4366|X|(Refer to figure 78.) What is the maximum altitude that you may flight plan an IFR flight on V 86 EASTBOUND between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS VORTACs? |17,000 feet MSL.|14,500 feet MSL.|18,000 feet MSL.|||
4367|X|(Refer to figures 78 and 79.) What is your position relative to the VOR COP southeast bound on V86 between the BOZEMAN and LIVINGSTON VORTACs?  The No. 1 VOR is tuned to 116.1 and the No. 2 VOR is tuned to 112.2. |Past the LVM R-246 and east of the BZN R-110.|Past the LVM R-246 and west of the BZN R-110.|Approaching the LVM R-246 and west of the BZN R-110.|||
4368|X|(Refer to figures 74 and 80.) Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 25?|B.|A.|C.|||
4369|X|(Refer to figure 80.) How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 27R (Billings Logan) approach procedure?|Four.|Five.|Three.|||
4370|X|(Refer to figure 78.) What is the minimum crossing altitude over the BOZEMAN VORTAC for a flight southeast bound on V86?|9,700 feet MSL.|8,500 feet MSL.|9,300 feet MSL.|||
4371|X|(Refer to figure 80.) What is the TDZE for landing on RWY 27R?|3,649 feet MSL.|3,514 feet MSL.|3,450 feet MSL.|||
4372|X|What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using a VOT?|Plus or minus 4°.|Plus or minus 6°.|Plus or minus 8°.|||
4373|X|When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?|When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.|Only when advised by ATC.|At all times when not in radar contact with ATC.|||
4374|X|You are flying an airship under an IFR flight plan and experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under|VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination.|IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination.|VFR and land as soon as practicable.|||
4375|X|The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace.|The pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class D airspace.|Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.|No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.|||
4376|X|When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the|180 radial.|360 radial.|090 radial.|||
4377|X|How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?|Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.|With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.|Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.|||
4378|X|When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector and the OBS indicator should read|0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.|within 6° of the selected radial.|within 4° of the selected radial.|||
4379|X|What does declaring ``minimum fuel'' to ATC imply?|Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.|Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport.|Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.|||
4380|X|When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between|500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.|1000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.|500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute.|||
4381|X|During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should|contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.|wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.|not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.|||
4382|X|(Refer to figure 81.) When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR's are satisfactory?|4.|1.|2.|||
4383|X|While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?|Plus or minus 6° when set to identical radials of a VOR.|Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR.|4° between the two indicated bearings to a VOR.|||
4384|X|How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the airplane is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?|Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.|Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.|With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.|||
4385|X|(Refer to figure 82.) Which is an acceptable range of accuracy when performing an operational check of dual VOR's using one system against the other?|4.|2.|1.|||
4386|X|Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?|In the Airport/Facility Directory and on the A/G Voice Communication Panel of the En Route Low Altitude Chart.|Only in the Airport/Facility Directory.|On the IAP Chart and in the Airport/Facility Directory.|||
4387|X|Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?|176° TO and 003° FROM, respectively.|001° FROM and 005° FROM, respectively.|360° TO and 003° TO, respectively.|||
4388|X|In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for a particular airport be found?|Airport/Facility Directory.|Airman's Information Manual.|En Route Low Altitude Chart.|||
4389|X|Which is the maximum tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the airplane is directly over the airborne checkpoint?|Plus or minus 7° of the designated radial.|Plus or minus 8° of the designated radial.|Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.|||
4390|X|When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?|At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.|When passing 12,500 feet MSL.|Only when ATC requests Mode C.|||
4391|X|When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?|6° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.|4° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.|Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR.|||
4392|X|What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads ``... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...''?|The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.|Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.|The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.|||
4393|X|What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?|Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet.|Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.|Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level.|||
4394|X|When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that|the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.|ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.|ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.|||
4395|X|What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft? |Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.|Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.|Read back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.|||
4396|X|Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)|Clearance limit, and SID Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.|Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.|Destination airport, altitude, and SID Name Number Transition, if appropriate.|||
4397|X|Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?|Slant range distance in SM.|Slant range distance in NM.|Line of sight direct distance from aircraft to VORTAC in SM.|||
4398|X|On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control:|CLEARED TO DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED -- MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND -- SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE -- DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. [new line]An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the|B.   transponder code.|A.   departure control frequency.|||
4399|X|Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?|High altitudes far from the VORTAC.|High altitudes close to the VORTAC.|Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.|||
4400|X|For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than|75 NM.|100 NM.|200 NM.|||
4401|X|What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight in IAP Charts, represent?|The horizontal distance a pilot should see down the runway from the approach end of the runway.|The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.|The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope.|||
4402|X|How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?|Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.|Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the true altitude to compare with the field elevation.|Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.|||
4403|X|When are ATIS broadcasts updated?|Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly.|Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.|Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.|||
4404|X|Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that|the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.|the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.|the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.|||
4405|X|The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from|the ATIS broadcast.|Notices to Airmen (Class II).|the FSS.|||
4406|X|From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM's?|Notices to Airmen publications.|Airport/Facility Directory.|FAA AFSS/FSS.|||
4407|X|When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?|Any time an emergency occurs.|When priority has been given.|When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.|||
4408|X|The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that|the in flight visibility is less than 3 miles and the ceiling is less than 1,500 feet within Class E airspace.|the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D airspace.|an IFR clearance is required to operate within the airport traffic area.|||
4409|X|What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within Class C airspace? |Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.|Position and altitude of all traffic within 2 miles of the IFR pilot's line of flight and altitude.|Separation from all aircraft operating in Class C airspace.|||
4410|X|What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?|No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.|A voice recording on the VOR frequency announcing that the VOR is out of service for maintenance.|Coded identification, but no navigation indications.|||
4411|X|A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by|removal of the identification feature.|broadcasting a maintenance alert signal on the voice channel.|removal of the navigational feature.|||
4412|X|What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?|The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.|VOR and DME components are both operative, but voice identification is out of service.|The VOR and DME components are operative.|||
4413|X|Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?|0.|1.3.|1.|||
4414|X|Which information is always given in an abbreviated clearance?|Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.|SID or transition name and altitude to maintain.|Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.|||
4415|X|If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which tower function is assumed by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?|Approach control clearance.|Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.|Airport Advisory Service.|||
4416|X|Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?|Airport advisories.|All functions of approach control.|Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.|||
4417|X|What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use a SID?|Advise departure control upon initial contact.|Enter ``No SID'' in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.|Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.|||
4418|X|A particular SID requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?|210.|490.|450.|||
4419|X|Which procedure applies to SID's?|The pilot in command must accept a SID when issued by ATC.|If a SID is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description.|SID clearances will not be issued unless requested by the pilot.|||
4420|X|During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?|Upon completing the first turn after takeoff or upon establishing cruise climb on a straight out departure.|When advised by the tower.|Before penetrating the clouds.|||
4421|X|During a flight, the controller advises ``traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound.'' The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?|40° to the right of the airplane's nose.|20° to the right of the airplane's nose.|Straight ahead.|||
4422|X|What is meant when departure control instructs you to ``resume own navigation'' after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?|You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.|Radar service is terminated.|You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.|||
4423|X|What does the ATC term ``Radar Contact'' signify?|Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.|You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.|Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.|||
4424|X|Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to ``RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This phrase means that|you are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.|radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.|you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.|||
4425|X|Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained by a helicopter during an off airways IFR flight over nonmountainous terrain?|2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 SM of course.|1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 SM of course.|1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 3 NM of course.|||
4426|X|In addition to a VOR receiver and two way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?|An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.|Another VOR and communications receiver and a coded transponder.|Standby communications receiver, DME, and coded transponder.|||
4427|X|No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan|and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.|prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway.|and receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff.|||
4428|X|Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained by a helicopter during an IFR off airways flight over mountainous terrain?|2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.|1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 NM of course.|7,500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 3 NM of course.|||
4429|X|What is the definition of MEA?|The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, two way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage.|The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.|An altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements, assures acceptable navigation signal coverage, two way radio communications, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.|||
4430|X|What altitude may a pilot select upon receiving a VFR on Top clearance?|Any altitude at least 1,000 feet above the meteorological condition.|Any VFR altitude appropriate for the direction of flight at least 1,000 feet above the meteorological condition.|Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions.|||
4431|X|When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?|When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR conditions.|When assigned a VFR on Top clearance.|When flying in VFR conditions above clouds.|||
4432|X|The MEA assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and|radar coverage.|DME response.|meets obstacle clearance requirements.|||
4433|X|You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR on Top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180°, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions.)|An even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.|An odd thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.|Any IFR altitude which will enable you to remain in VFR conditions.|||
4434|X|MOAs are established to|restrict civil aircraft during periods of high density training activities.|separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.|prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities.|||
4435|X|Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?|MOCA.|MRA.|MCA.|||
4436|X|Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non mountainous area.)|Adequate communications.|1,000 foot obstacle clearance.|Adequate navigation signals.|||
4437|X|If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?|The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.|The MEA at which the fix is approached.|The MRA at which the fix is approached.|||
4438|X|What requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a deviation from the FAR 91 requirement for a transponder in class B airspace?|The proposed flight must be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).|The proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules.|A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.|||
4439|X|A request for a deviation from the 4096 code transponder equipment requirement, when operating in Class B airspace, must be submitted to the|nearest FAA General Aviation District Office 24 hours before the proposed operation.|controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight.|FAA Administrator at least 24 hours before the proposed operation.|||
4440|X|Which of the following is required equipment for operating an airplane within Class B airspace?|A 4096 code transponder.|A VOR receiver with DME.|A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment.|||
4441|X|Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?|Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.|Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions.|Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions.|||
4442|X|Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?|SID's, STAR's, and visual approaches.|SID's, standard terminal arrival route (STAR), and contact approaches.|Contact and visual approaches.|||
4443|X|What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads ``...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?|The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.|It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.|The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.|||
4444|X|What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?|Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before takeoff.|Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92" Hg.|Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.|||
4445|X|En route at FL 290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?|Sea level.|715 feet.|1,300 feet.|||
4446|X|While you are flying at FL 250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92" Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?|26,000 feet.|25,000 feet.|24,000 feet.|||
4447|X|Where are VFR on Top operations prohibited?|When flying through Class B airspace.|In Class A airspace.|During off airways direct flights.|||
4448|X|What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?|Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.|Notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude, since your DME has failed.|Advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made.|||
4449|X|Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on Top clearance?|VFR and IFR.|VFR when ``in the clear'' and IFR when ``in the clouds.''|VFR only.|||
4450|X|When can a VFR on Top clearance be assigned by ATC?|When VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of clouds below the MEA.|Any time suitable conditions exist and ATC wishes to expedite traffic flow.|Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable.|||
4451|X|Which ATC clearance should instrument rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?|To VFR on Top.|Special VFR to VFR Over the Top.|VFR Over the Top.|||
4452|X|When on a VFR on Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on|true course.|magnetic heading.|magnetic course.|||
4453|X|In which airspace is VFR on Top operation prohibited?| Class B airspace.| Class A airspace.| Class E airspace.|||
4454|X|What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?|Even thousand foot levels.|Odd thousand foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.|Even thousand foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.|||
4455|X|What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a nonradar environment?|Only the reporting of any unforecast weather.|All normal IFR reports except vacating altitudes.|The same reports that are required for any IFR flight.|||
4456|X|Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?|Entering instrument meteorological conditions.|Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.|When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach.|||
4457|X|What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR on Top clearance?|Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected.|At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological condition.|At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or appropriate MOCA, and at least 1,000 feet above the existing meteorological condition.|||
4458|X|A ``CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET'' clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to|vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.|climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance.|use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.|||
4459|X|What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?|After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.|Continue to your destination in VFR conditions and report the malfunction.|Notify ATC immediately and request an altitude below 24,000 feet.|||
4460|X|What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has only Omni.|Continue the flight as cleared; no report is required.|Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.|Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.|||
4461|X|While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?|Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.|Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.|Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.|||
4462|X|You enter a holding pattern at a fix, not the same as the approach fix, and receive an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?|Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.|Depart the holding fix at the EFC time or earlier if your flight planned ETA is before the EFC.|Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete the approach.|||
4463|X|Which procedure should you follow if you experience two way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)|Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.|Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.|Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.|||
4464|X|You are in IMC and have two way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?|Set transponder to code 7700 for 1 minute, then to 7600, and fly to an area with VFR weather conditions.|Set transponder to 7700 and fly to an area where you can let down in VFR conditions.|Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.|||
4465|X|Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two way radio communications failure?|Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.|Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach upon arrival.|Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.|||
4466|X|What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two way radio communications failure?|Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.|Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.|Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA's along the clearance route.|||
4467|X|AIRMET's are issued on a scheduled basis every|six hours.|15 minutes until the AIRMET is canceled.|15 minutes after the hour only.|||
4468|X|Pilots on IFR flights seeking ATC in flight weather avoidance assistance should keep in mind that|circumnavigating severe weather can only be accommodated in the en route areas away from terminals because of congestion.|ATC radar limitations and, frequency congestion may limit the controllers capability to provide this service.|ATC Narrow Band Radar does not provide the controller with weather intensity capability.|||
4469|X|When are you required to establish communications with the tower, (Class D airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?|Before entering Class D airspace.|When advised by ARTCC.|Immediately after canceling the flight plan.|||
4470|X|What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?|Instrument takeoffs are not authorized.|Takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines.|Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.|||
4471|X|What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?|Use VFR operating procedures.|To see and avoid other traffic.|Report VFR conditions to ARTCC so that an amended clearance may be issued.|||
4472|X|As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate?|One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.|No specific distance is specified since the reception is line of sight.|Two miles or more for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.|||
4473|X|Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?|That Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area.|The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.|The Class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, where designated.|||
4474|X|The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from|18,000 feet to and including FL 600.|12,500 feet to and including FL 600.|18,000 feet to and including FL 450.|||
4475|X|Class G airspace is that airspace where |ATC does not control air traffic.|ATC controls only IFR flights.|the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles.|||
4476|X|What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?|1,200 feet AGL to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.|Surface to 700 feet AGL.|700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.|||
4477|X|How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?|Set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg.|Contact an FSS and ask for the pressure altitude.|Use your computer to change the indicated altitude to pressure altitude.|||
4478|X|How can you determine the pressure altitude at an airport without a tower or FSS?|Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the altitude indicated.|Use your computer and correct the field elevation for temperature.|Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of a station within 100 miles and correct this indicated altitude with local temperature.|||
4479|X|Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg ?|Standard.|Pressure.|Density.|||
4480|X|If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter|to the airport elevation.|on 29.92" Hg.|on the current airport barometric pressure, if known.|||
4481|X|En route at FL 290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?|206 feet below MSL.|474 feet MSL.|100 feet MSL.|||
4482|X|How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?|FSS's along the route broadcast the weather information at 15 minutes past the hour.|ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting.|The pilot should contact ARTCC at least every 100 NM and request the altimeter setting.|||
4483|X|(Refer to figure 83.) Which altimeter depicts 12,000 feet? |4.|3.|2.|||
4484|X|(Refer to figure 84.) Which altimeter depicts 8,000 feet?|1.|3.|2.|||
4485|X|Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is|10,000 feet MSL.|18,000 feet MSL.|24,000