4002|X|What limitation is imposed on a newly certificated commercial airplane pilot if that person does not hold an instrument pilot rating?|The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.|The carrying of passengers for hire on cross-country flights is limited to 50 NM for night flights, but not limited for day flights.|The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross-country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 nautical miles (NM).||| 4003|X|Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must|list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.|be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.|be familiar with all instrument approaches at the destination airport.||| 4004|X|The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on aircraft that are being operated under|VFR.|IFR.|DVFR.||| 4005|X|If weather conditions are such that it is required to designate an alternate airport on your IFR flight plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly from that airport to the alternate airport, and fly thereafter for|30 minutes at slow cruising speed.|1 hour at normal cruising speed.|45 minutes at normal cruising speed.||| 4006|X|Except when necessary for takeoff or landing or unless otherwise authorized by the Administrator, the minimum altitude for IFR flight is|3,000 feet over designated mountainous terrain; 2,000 feet over terrain elsewhere.|3,000 feet over all terrain.|2,000 feet above the highest obstacle over designated mountainous terrain; 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle over terrain elsewhere.||| 4007|X|If the aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace,|the pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class B airspace.|aircraft must immediately descend below 1,200 feet AGL and proceed to destination.|ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow aircraft to continue to the airport of ultimate destination.||| 4008|X|If a pilot enters the condition of flight in the pilot logbook as simulated instrument conditions, what qualifying information must also be entered?|Place and type of each instrument approach completed and name of safety pilot.|Number and type of instrument approaches completed and route of flight.|Name and pilot certificate number of safety pilot and type of approaches completed.||| 4009|X|What portion of dual instruction time may a certificated instrument flight instructor log as instrument flight time?|Only the time during which the instructor flies the aircraft by reference to instruments.|All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor in actual instrument weather conditions.|All time during which the instructor acts as instrument instructor, regardless of weather conditions.||| 4010|X|Which flight time may be logged as instrument time when on an instrument flight plan?|Only the time you controlled the aircraft solely by reference to flight instruments.|All of the time the aircraft was not controlled by ground references.|Only the time you were flying in IFR weather conditions.||| 4011|X|What are the minimum qualifications for a person who occupies the other control seat as safety pilot during simulated instrument flight?|Private pilot.|Private pilot with instrument rating.|Appropriately rated in the aircraft.||| 4013|X|After your recent IFR experience lapses, how much time do you have before you must pass an instrument competency check to act as pilot in command under IFR?|6 months.|12 months.|90 days.||| 4014|X|An instrument rated pilot, who has not logged any instrument time in 1 year or more, cannot serve as pilot in command under IFR, unless the pilot|passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, followed by 6 hours and six instrument approaches, 3 of those hours in the category of aircraft involved.|passes an instrument proficiency check in the category of aircraft involved, given by an approved FAA examiner, instrument instructor, or FAA inspector.|completes the required 6 hours and six approaches, followed by an instrument proficiency check given by an FAA-designated examiner.||| 4015|X|A pilot's recent IFR experience expires on July 1 of this year. What is the latest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirement without having to take an instrument proficiency check?|December 31, this year.|June 30, next year.|July 31, this year.||| 4016|X|What additional approaches, if any, must you perform to maintain IFR currency in a helicopter?\nWithin the past 6 months, you have accomplished:\nOne approach in a helicopter.\nTwo approaches in an airplane.\nTwo approaches in an approved simulator.|One approach in an airplane, helicopter, or approved simulator.|Two approaches in a helicopter and one approach in an approved simulator.|None.||| 4017|X|What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency?|The approaches may be made in an aircraft, approved instrument ground trainer, or any combination of these.|At least three approaches must be made in the same category of aircraft to be flown.|At least three approaches must be made in the same category and class of aircraft to be flown.||| 4018|X|Under which condition may you act as pilot in command of a helicopter under IFR?\nYour certificates and ratings: Private Pilot Certificate with AMEL and Airplane instrument, rotorcraft category rating, and helicopter class rating.|If you meet the recent helicopter IFR experience requirements.|If you acquire a helicopter instrument rating and meet IFR currency requirements.|If a certificated helicopter instrument flight instructor is on board.||| 4021|X|How long does a pilot remain current for IFR flight after successfully completing an instrument competency check if no further IFR flights are made?|12 months.|90 days.|6 months.||| 4023|X|What minimum conditions are necessary for the instrument approaches required for IFR currency in an airplane?|A minimum of six in any approved instrument ground trainer or aircraft within the past 6 months.|A minimum of six, at least three of which must be in an aircraft within the past 6 months.|A minimum of six in an aircraft, at least three of which must be in the same category within the past 6 months.||| 4024|X|When are you required to have an instrument rating for flight in VMC?|Flight through an MOA.|Flight into class A airspace.|Flight into an ADIZ.||| 4026|X|Which additional IFR experience allows you to meet the recent IFR experience requirements to act as pilot in command of an airplane under IFR?\nYour present instrument experience within the past 6 months is:\n1. three hours with holding, intercepting and tracking courses in an approved airplane flight simulator.\n2. two instrument approaches in an airplane.|Three hours of simulated or actual instrument flight time in a helicopter and two instrument approaches in an airplane or helicopter.|Four instrument approaches in an approved flight simulator that is representative of the airplane category.|Three instrument approaches in an airplane.||| 4028|X|A certificated commercial pilot who carries passengers for hire in an airplane at night or in excess of 50 NM is required to have at least|an airplane instrument pilot rating.|an associated type rating if the airplane is of the multiengine class.|a First-Class Medical Certificate.||| 4029|X|You intend to carry passengers for hire on a night VFR flight in a single engine airplane within a 25 mile radius of the departure airport. You are required to possess at least which rating(s)?|A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine land rating.|A Private Pilot Certificate with a single engine land and instrument airplane rating.|A Commercial Pilot Certificate with a single engine and instrument (airplane) rating.||| 4030|X|Do regulations permit you to act as pilot in command of a helicopter in IMC if you hold a Private Pilot Certificate with ASEL, airplane instrument rating, rotorcraft category, and helicopter class rating?|No, you must hold either an unrestricted Airline Transport Pilot-Helicopter Certificate or a helicopter instrument rating.|Yes, if you comply with the recent IFR experience requirements for a helicopter.|No, however, you may do so if you hold an Airline Transport Pilot-Helicopter Certificate, limited to VFR.||| 4031|X|Under which condition must the pilot in command of a civil aircraft have at least an instrument rating?|When operating in class E airspace.|For any flight above an altitude of 1,200 feet AGL, when the visibility is less than 3 miles.|For a flight in VFR conditions while on an IFR flight plan.||| 4032|X|What are the minimum fuel requirements for airplanes in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,|fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.|fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.|and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.||| 4033|X|Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in command must become familiar with all available information concerning that flight. In addition, the pilot must|be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use, and the alternatives available if the flight cannot be completed.|list an alternate airport on the flight plan and become familiar with the instrument approaches to that airport.|list an alternate airport on the flight plan and confirm adequate takeoff and landing performance at the destination airport.||| 4034|X|Which limitation is imposed on the holder of a Commercial Pilot Certificate if that person does not hold an instrument rating?|The carrying of passengers or property for hire on cross country flights at night is limited to a radius of 50 NM.|The carrying of passengers for hire on cross country flights is limited to 50 NM and the carrying of passengers for hire at night is prohibited.|That person is limited to private pilot privileges at night.||| 4035|X|To carry passengers for hire in an airplane on cross country flights of more than 50 NM from the departure airport, the pilot in command is required to hold at least|a Commercial Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.|a Category II pilot authorization.|a First Class Medical certificate.||| 4036|X|When must an operational check on the aircraft VOR equipment be accomplished to operate under IFR?|Within the preceding 30 days or 30 hours of flight time.|Within the preceding 30 days.|Within the preceding 10 days or 10 hours of flight time.||| 4037|X|In the 48 contiguous states, excluding the airspace at or below 2,500 feet AGL, an operable coded transponder equipped with Mode C capability is required in all controlled airspace at and above|12,500 feet MSL.|10,000 feet MSL.|Flight level (FL) 180.||| 4038|X|A coded transponder equipped with altitude reporting capability is required in all controlled airspace|at and above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL.|at and above 2,500 feet above the surface.|below 10,000 feet MSL, excluding at and below 2,500 feet AGL.||| 4039|X|Who is responsible for determining that the altimeter system has been checked and found to meet FAR requirements for a particular instrument flight?|Pilot in command.|Owner.|Operator.||| 4040|X|What are the fuel requirements for a night IFR flight in a helicopter when an alternate airport is not required?|Enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, make an approach, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at cruising speed.|Enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at cruising speed.|Enough fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing and fly after that for 30 minutes.||| 4041|X|When an alternate airport is required for helicopters on the flight plan, you must have sufficient fuel to complete the flight to the first airport of intended landing, fly to the alternate, and thereafter fly for at least|45 minutes at normal cruising speed.|30 minutes at normal cruising speed.|45 minutes at holding speed.||| 4042|X|If an unpressurized aircraft is operated above 12,500 feet MSL, but not more than 14,000 feet MSL, for a period of 2 hours 20 minutes, how long during that time is the minimum flightcrew required to use supplemental oxygen?|1 hour 20 minutes.|2 hours 20 minutes.|1 hour 50 minutes.||| 4043|X|A helicopter being operated under IFR is required to have, in addition to the equipment required for VFR and night, at least|a slip skid indicator.|distance measuring equipment.|dual VOR receivers.||| 4044|X|Which data must be recorded in the aircraft log or other appropriate log by a pilot making a VOR operational check for IFR operations?|Date of check, VOR name or identification, place of operational check, and amount of bearing error.|Place of operational check, amount of bearing error, date of check, and signature.|VOR name or identification, date of check, amount of bearing error, and signature.||| 4045|X|What is the maximum cabin pressure altitude at which a pilot can fly for longer than 30 minutes without using supplemental oxygen?|10,500 feet.|12,500 feet.|12,000 feet.||| 4046|X|What record shall be made in the aircraft log or other permanent record by the pilot making the VOR operational check?|The date, place, satisfactory or unsatisfactory, and signature.|The date, frequency of VOR or VOT, number of flight hours since last check, and signature.|The date, place, bearing error, and signature.||| 4047|X|Your aircraft had the static pressure system and altimeter tested and inspected on January 5, of this year, and was found to comply with FAA standards. These systems must be reinspected and approved for use in controlled airspace under IFR by|January 5, 2 years hence.|January 31, 2 years hence.|January 5, next year.||| 4048|X|Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instrument systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?|VOR within 30 days, altimeter systems within 24 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months.|ELT test within 30 days, altimeter systems within 12 calendar months, and transponder within 24 calendar months.|VOR within 24 calendar months, transponder within 24 calendar months, and altimeter system within 12 calendar months.||| 4049|X|An aircraft altimeter system test and inspection must be accomplished within|12 calendar months.|18 calendar months.|24 calendar months.||| 4050|X|Where is DME required under IFR?|In positive control areas.|At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigational equipment is required.|Above 18,000 feet MSL.||| 4051|X|An aircraft operated during IFR under FAR Part 91 is required to have which of the following?|Dual VOR system.|Radar altimeter.|Gyroscopic direction indicator.||| 4052|X|What is the maximum IFR altitude you may fly in an unpressurized aircraft without providing passengers with supplemental oxygen?|12,500 feet.|14,000 feet.|15,000 feet.||| 4053|X|What is the oxygen requirement for an unpressurized aircraft at 15,000 feet?|All occupants must use oxygen for the entire time at this altitude.|Crew must start using oxygen at 12,000 feet and passengers at 15,000 feet.|Crew must use oxygen for the entire time above 14,000 feet and passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen only above 15,000 feet.||| 4054|X|When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?|6° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.|Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR.|4° between the two indicated bearings of a VOR.||| 4055|X|What minimum navigation equipment is required for IFR flight?|VOR/LOC receiver, transponder, and DME.|VOR receiver and, if in ARTS III environment, a coded transponder equipped for altitude reporting.|Navigation equipment appropriate to the ground facilities to be used.||| 4056|X|You check the flight instruments while taxiing and find that the vertical speed indicator (VSI) indicates a descent of 100 feet per minute. In this case, you|must return to the parking area and have the instrument corrected by an authorized instrument repairman.|may not take off until the instrument is corrected by either the pilot or a mechanic.|may take off and use 100 feet descent as the zero indication.||| 4057|X|To meet the requirements for flight under IFR, a helicopter must be equipped with certain operable instruments and equipment. One of those required is|a clock with sweep second pointer or digital presentation.|a transponder with altitude reporting capability.|a radar altimeter.||| 4058|X|How is your flight plan closed when your destination airport has IFR conditions and there is no control tower or flight service station (FSS) on the field?|You may close your flight plan any time after starting the approach by contacting any FSS or ATC facility.|The ARTCC controller will close your flight plan when you report the runway in sight.|Upon landing, you must close your flight plan by radio or by telephone to any FSS or ATC facility.||| 4059|X|When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?|Any time a landing is planned at an intermediate airport.|Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR.|When requested or advised by ATC.||| 4060|X|When filing a composite flight plan where the first portion of the flight is IFR, which fix(es) should be indicated on the flight plan form?|Only those compulsory reporting points on the IFR route segment.|All points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix.|Only the fix where you plan to terminate the IFR portion of the flight.||| 4061|X|What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?|Upon reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact the nearest FSS and cancel your VFR flight plan, then contact ARTCC and request an IFR clearance.|Prior to reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact ARTCC, request your IFR clearance, and instruct them to cancel the VFR flight plan.|Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance.||| 4062|X|When is an IFR flight plan required?|In all Class E airspace when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.|In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.|When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.||| 4063|X|Prior to which operation must an IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?|Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.|Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace.|Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.||| 4064|X|To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to|entering weather conditions below VFR minimums.|entering controlled airspace.|takeoff.||| 4065|X|To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to|entering controlled airspace.|controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments.|entering weather conditions in any airspace.||| 4066|X|When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?|When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.|When operating in the Class E airspace.|When operating in a Class A airspace.||| 4067|X|Operation in which airspace requires filing an IFR flight plan? |Positive control area, Continental Control Area, and all other airspace, if the visibility is less than 1 mile.|Class E airspace with IMC and class A airspace.|Any airspace when the visibility is less than 1 mile.||| 4068|X|When departing from an airport located outside controlled airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before|entering Class E airspace.|entering IFR conditions.|takeoff.||| 4069|X|What is a waypoint when used for an IFR flight?|A predetermined geographical position used for an RNAV route or an RNAV instrument approach.|A reporting point defined by the intersection of two VOR radials.|A location on a victor airway which can only be identified by VOR and DME signals.||| 4070|X|Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix via|direct route only.|a standard instrument departure (SID), or radar vectors.|the established airway(s) between the departure airport and the fix.||| 4071|X|For which speed variation should you notify ATC?|When the average true airspeed changes 5 percent or 10 knots, whichever is greater.|When the groundspeed changes more than 5 knots.|Any time the groundspeed changes 10 MPH.||| 4072|X|(Refer to figure 1.) Which item(s) should be checked in block 1 for a composite flight plan?|IFR with an explanation in block 11.|VFR with an explanation in block 11.|VFR and IFR.||| 4073|X|(Refer to figure 1.) The time entered in block 12 for an IFR flight should be based on which fuel quantity?|Total useable fuel on board.|The amount of fuel required to fly to the destination airport, then to the alternate, plus a 45 minute reserve.|Total fuel required for the flight.||| 4074|X|(Refer to figure 1.) What information should be entered in block 7 of an IFR flight plan if the flight has three legs, each at a different altitude? |Altitude for first leg.|Highest altitude.|Altitude for first leg and highest altitude.||| 4075|X|(Refer to figure 1.) Which equipment determines the code to be entered in block 3 as a suffix to aircraft type on the flight plan form? |DME, transponder, and RNAV.|DME, transponder, and ADF.|DME, ADF, and airborne radar.||| 4076|X|When may a pilot cancel the IFR flight plan prior to completing the flight?|Only in VFR conditions outside positive controlled airspace.|Only if an emergency occurs.|Any time.||| 4077|X|Which airspaces are depicted on the En Route Low Altitude Chart?|Class D, Class C, Class B, Class E and special use airspace.|Special use airspace, Class E, Class D, Class A, Class B and Class C.|Class A, special use airspace, Class D and Class E.||| 4078|X|Where are the compulsory reporting points, if any, on a direct flight not flown on radials or courses of established airways or routes?|There are no compulsory reporting points unless advised by ATC.|Fixes selected to define the route.|At the changeover points.||| 4079|X|Which sources of aeronautical information, when used collectively, provide the latest status of airport conditions (e.g., runway closures, runway lighting, snow conditions)?|Aeronautical Information Manual, aeronautical charts, and Distant (D) Notice to Airmen (NOTAM's).|Airport Facility Directory, Distant (D) NOTAM's, and Local (L) NOTAM's.|Airport Facility Directory, FDC NOTAM's, and Local (L) NOTAM's.||| 4080|X|What is the purpose of FDC NOTAMs?|To advise of changes in flight data which affect instrument approach procedure (IAP), aeronautical charts, and flight restrictions prior to normal publication.|To issue notices for all airports and navigation facilities in the shortest possible time.|To provide the latest information on the status of navigation facilities to all FSS facilities for scheduled broadcasts.||| 4081|X|What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an airport that has only a VOR approach with standard alternate minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?|1,000 foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR.|800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility.|800 foot ceiling and 1 statute mile (SM) visibility.||| 4082|X|Is an alternate airport required for an IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z?\nTAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030\nFM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB\nFM2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVC040 BECMG 0608\n02008KT BKN 040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR=|No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.|Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA.|No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA.||| 4083|X|What minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available?|From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles.|From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles.|From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles.||| 4084|X|Under what condition are you not required to list an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan for an IFR flight in a helicopter?|When the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2,000 feet and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport.|When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude within 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport.|When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude and the visibility is 2 miles more than the minimum landing visibility within 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport.||| 4085|X|What standard minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only?|Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.|Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively.|Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively.||| 4086|X|What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?|The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.|The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively.|The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR.||| 4087|X|What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for the IFR flight?|600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA.|600 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.|800 foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.||| 4088|X|Which publication covers the procedures required for aircraft accident and incident reporting responsibilities for pilots?|NTSB Part 830.|FAR Part 91.|FAR Part 61.||| 4089|X|Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same value?|When the altimeter setting is 29.92" Hg.|When indicated, and pressure altitudes are the same value on the altimeter.|At standard temperature.||| 4090|X|Under which condition will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?|When standard atmospheric conditions exist.|When the atmospheric pressure is 29.92" Hg.|When indicated altitude is equal to the pressure altitude.||| 4091|X|Which condition would cause the altimeter to indicate a lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)?|Air temperature warmer than standard.|Air temperature lower than standard.|Atmospheric pressure lower than standard.||| 4092|X|Which is true regarding the use of airborne weather-avoidance radar for the recognition of certain weather conditions?|The clear area between intense echoes indicates that visual sighting of storms can be maintained when flying between the echoes.|The avoidance of hail is assured when flying between and just clear of the most intense echoes.|The radarscope provides no assurance of avoiding instrument weather conditions.||| 4093|X|When an altimeter is changed from 30.11" Hg to 29.96" Hg, in which direction will the indicated altitude change and by what value?|Altimeter will indicate 150 feet higher.|Altimeter will indicate 150 feet lower.|Altimeter will indicate 15 feet lower.||| 4094|X|A common type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that which is produced by|ground radiation on clear, cool nights when the wind is light.|warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.|the movement of colder air over warm air, or the movement of warm air under cold air.||| 4095|X|How much colder than standard temperature is the actual temperature at 9,000 feet, as indicated in the following excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast?\nFT 6000 9000\n 0737-04 1043-10|3 °C.|7 °C.|10 °C.||| 4096|X|The primary cause of all changes in the Earth's weather is|changes in air pressure over the Earth's surface.|movement of the air masses.|variation of solar energy received by the Earth's regions.||| 4097|X|A characteristic of the stratosphere is|a relatively even base altitude of approximately 35,000 feet.|an overall decrease of temperature with an increase in altitude.|relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude.||| 4098|X|Steady precipitation, in contrast to showers, preceding a front is an indication of|cummuliform clouds with little or no turbulence.|stratiform clouds with moderate turbulence.|stratiform clouds with little or no turbulence.||| 4099|X|The presence of ice pellets at the surface is evidence that|a cold front has passed.|there are thunderstorms in the area.|there is freezing rain at a higher altitude.||| 4100|X|Which conditions result in the formation of frost?|The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing and small droplets of moisture are falling.|Temperature of the collecting surface is below the dewpoint of surrounding air and the dewpoint is colder than freezing.|When dew forms and the temperature is below freezing.||| 4101|X|To which meteorological condition does the term ``dewpoint'' refer?|The temperature at which condensation and evaporation are equal.|The temperature to which air must be cooled to become saturated.|The temperature at which dew will always form.||| 4102|X|What temperature condition is indicated if wet snow is encountered at your flight altitude?|The temperature is above freezing at your altitude.|You are flying from a warm air mass into a cold air mass.|The temperature is below freezing at your altitude.||| 4103|X|The amount of water vapor which air can hold largely depends on|relative humidity.|stability of air.|air temperature.||| 4104|X|Clouds, fog, or dew will always form when|water vapor is present.|water vapor condenses.|the temperature and dewpoint are equal.||| 4105|X|What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?|The greater density of the air at the surface.|Surface friction.|Coriolis force.||| 4106|X|Winds at 5,000 feet AGL on a particular flight are southwesterly while most of the surface winds are southerly. This difference in direction is primarily due to|a stronger pressure gradient at higher altitudes.|stronger Coriolis force at the surface.|friction between the wind and the surface.||| 4107|X|What relationship exists between the winds at 2,000 feet above the surface and the surface winds?|The winds at 2,000 feet and the surface winds flow in the same direction, but the surface winds are weaker due to friction.|The winds at 2,000 feet tend to parallel the isobars while the surface winds cross the isobars at an angle toward lower pressure and are weaker.|The surface winds tend to veer to the right of the winds at 2,000 feet and are usually weaker.||| 4108|X|Which force, in the Northern Hemisphere, acts at a right angle to the wind and deflects it to the right until parallel to the isobars?|Coriolis.|Centrifugal.|Pressure gradient.||| 4109|X|Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92" Hg?|When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.|In warmer than standard air temperature.|In colder than standard air temperature.||| 4110|X|Which of the following defines the type of altitude used when maintaining FL 210?|Indicated.|Calibrated.|Pressure.||| 4111|X|Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates|pressure altitude at field elevation.|true altitude at field elevation.|pressure altitude at sea level.||| 4112|X|The most frequent type of ground or surface based temperature inversion is that produced by|the movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm air over cold air.|warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.|radiation on a clear, relatively still night.||| 4113|X|If the air temperature is +8 °C at an elevation of 1,350 feet and a standard (average) temperature lapse rate exists, what will be the approximate freezing level?|9,350 feet MSL.|3,350 feet MSL.|5,350 feet MSL.||| 4114|X|What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?|An unstable layer of air.|A stable layer of air.|Air mass thunderstorms.||| 4115|X|What type of clouds will be formed if very stable moist air is forced upslope?|Vertical clouds with increasing height.|First stratified clouds and then vertical clouds.|Stratified clouds with little vertical development.||| 4116|X|The general characteristics of unstable air are|poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds.|good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratiform type clouds.|good visibility, showery precipitation, and cumuliform type clouds.||| 4117|X|Which is a characteristic of stable air?|Stratiform clouds.|Fair weather cumulus clouds.|Unlimited visibility.||| 4118|X|What type clouds can be expected when an unstable air mass is forced to ascend a mountain slope?|Layered clouds with little vertical development.|Clouds with extensive vertical development.|Stratified clouds with considerable associated turbulence.||| 4119|X|What are the characteristics of stable air?|Poor visibility, intermittent precipitation, and cumulus-type clouds.|Poor visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds.|Good visibility, steady precipitation, and stratus type clouds.||| 4120|X|What are some characteristics of unstable air?|Nimbostratus clouds and good surface visibility.|Turbulence and poor surface visibility.|Turbulence and good surface visibility.||| 4121|X|Stability can be determined from which measurement of the atmosphere?|Low level winds.|Atmospheric pressure.|Ambient lapse rate.||| 4122|X|What determines the structure or type of clouds which form as a result of air being forced to ascend?|The amount of condensation nuclei present after lifting occurs.|The stability of the air before lifting occurs.|The method by which the air is lifted.||| 4123|X|Which of the following combinations of weather producing variables would likely result in cumuliform type clouds, good visibility, rain showers, and possible clear type icing in clouds?|Unstable, moist air, and orographic lifting.|Stable, dry air, and orographic lifting.|Unstable, moist air, and no lifting mechanism.||| 4124|X|Unsaturated air flowing upslope will cool at the rate of approximately (dry adiabatic lapse rate)|3 °C per 1,000 feet.|2.5 °C per 1,000 feet.|2 °C per 1,000 feet.||| 4125|X|A temperature inversion will normally form only|in unstable air.|when a stratiform layer merges with a cumuliform mass.|in stable air.||| 4126|X|Which weather phenomenon signals the beginning of the mature stage of a thunderstorm?|The start of rain at the surface.|Growth rate of cloud is maximum.|Strong turbulence in the cloud.||| 4127|X|Frontal waves normally form on|slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts.|slow moving warm fronts and strong occluded fronts.|rapidly moving cold fronts or warm fronts.||| 4128|X|Which are characteristics of an unstable cold air mass moving over a warm surface?|Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and good visibility.|Stratiform clouds, smooth air, and poor visibility.|Cumuliform clouds, turbulence, and poor visibility.||| 4129|X|Which clouds have the greatest turbulence?|Cumulonimbus.|Towering cumulus.|Altocumulus castellanus.||| 4130|X|Standing lenticular clouds, in mountainous areas, indicate|an inversion.|unstable air.|turbulence.||| 4131|X|\nThe suffix "nimbus", used in naming clouds, means a|cloud with extensive vertical development.|raincloud.|dark massive, towering cloud.||| 4132|X|The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of|heavy icing conditions.|very strong turbulence.|a jetstream.||| 4133|X|Which family of clouds is least likely to contribute to structural icing on an aircraft?|High clouds.|Clouds with extensive vertical development.|Low clouds.||| 4134|X|What are the four families of clouds?|Clouds formed by updrafts, fronts, cooling layers of air, and precipitation into warm air.|Stratus, cumulus, nimbus, and cirrus.|High, middle, low, and those with extensive vertical development.||| 4135|X|Where can wind shear associated with a thunderstorm be found? Choose the most complete answer.|In front of the thunderstorm cell (anvil side) and on the right side of the cell.|In front of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.|On all sides of the thunderstorm cell and directly under the cell.||| 4136|X|Which weather phenomenon is always associated with the passage of a frontal system?|Clouds, either ahead or behind the front.|A wind change.|An abrupt decrease in pressure.||| 4137|X|Where do squall lines most often develop?|Ahead of a cold front.|In a cold air mass.|In an occluded front.||| 4138|X|Where does wind shear occur?|With either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.|Wherever there is an abrupt decrease in pressure and/or temperature.|Exclusively in thunderstorms.||| 4139|X|What is an important characteristic of wind shear?|It usually exists only in the vicinity of thunderstorms, but may be found near a strong temperature inversion.|It may be associated with either a wind shift or a windspeed gradient at any level in the atmosphere.|It is primarily associated with the lateral vortices generated by thunderstorms.||| 4140|X|Which is a characteristic of low level wind shear as it relates to frontal activity?|With a warm front, the most critical period is before the front passes the airport.|With a cold front, the most critical period is just before the front passes the airport.|Turbulence will always exist in wind shear conditions.||| 4141|X|What is indicated by the term ``embedded thunderstorms''?|Thunderstorms are predicted to develop in a stable air mass.|Severe thunderstorms are embedded within a squall line.|Thunderstorms are obscured by massive cloud layers and cannot be seen.||| 4142|X|If squalls are reported at your destination, what wind conditions should you anticipate?|Rapid variation in wind direction of at least 20° and changes in speed of at least 10 knots between peaks and lulls.|Peak gusts of at least 35 knots for a sustained period of 1 minute or longer.|Sudden increases in windspeed of at least 15 knots to a peak of 20 knots or more, lasting for at least 1 minute.||| 4143|X|During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?|Cumulus.|Mature.|Dissipating.||| 4144|X|Which weather phenomenon is always associated with a thunderstorm?|Heavy rain showers.|Supercooled raindrops.|Lightning.||| 4145|X|Which thunderstorms generally produce the most severe conditions, such as heavy hail and destructive winds?|Warm front.|Squall line.|Air mass.||| 4146|X|Which procedure is recommended if a pilot should unintentionally penetrate embedded thunderstorm activity?|Reverse aircraft heading or proceed toward an area of known VFR conditions.|Reduce airspeed to maneuvering speed and maintain a constant altitude.|Set power for recommended turbulence penetration airspeed and attempt to maintain a level flight attitude.||| 4147|X|What is an indication that downdrafts have developed and the thunderstorm cell has entered the mature stage?|A gust front forms.|The anvil top has completed its development.|Precipitation begins to fall from the cloud base.||| 4148|X|What are the requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?|Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and a lifting action.|A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture and an inverted lapse rate.|A cumulus cloud with sufficient moisture.||| 4149|X|Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate|turbulence at and below the cloud level.|poor visibility.|smooth flying conditions.||| 4150|X|What is an important characteristic of wind shear?|It is an atmospheric condition that may be associated with a low level temperature inversion, a jet stream, or a frontal zone.|It is an atmospheric condition that is associated exclusively with zones of convergence.|The Coriolis phenomenon in both high and low level air masses is the principal generating force.||| 4151|X|Why is frost considered hazardous to flight operation?|Frost causes early airflow separation resulting in a loss of lift.|Frost changes the basic aerodynamic shape of the airfoil.|Frost decreases control effectiveness.||| 4152|X|In which meteorological environment is aircraft structural icing most likely to have the highest rate of accumulation?|Cumulonimbus clouds.|Freezing rain.|High humidity and freezing temperature.||| 4153|X|What is an operational consideration if you fly into rain which freezes on impact?|You have flown into an area of thunderstorms.|Temperatures are above freezing at some higher altitude.|You have flown through a cold front.||| 4154|X|The average height of the troposphere in the middle latitudes is|20,000 feet.|25,000 feet.|37,000 feet.||| 4155|X|A jetstream is defined as wind of|30 knots or greater.|40 knots or greater.|50 knots or greater.||| 4156|X|Under which condition does advection fog usually form?|Moist air moving over colder ground or water.|Warm, moist air settling over a cool surface under no wind conditions.|A land breeze blowing a cold air mass over a warm water current.||| 4157|X|A high cloud is composed mostly of|condensation nuclei.|ozone.|ice crystals.||| 4158|X|An air mass is a body of air that|covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture.|has similar cloud formations associated with it.|creates a wind shift as it moves across the Earth's surface.||| 4159|X|What enhances the growth rate of precipitation?|Cyclonic movement.|Advective action.|Upward currents.||| 4160|X|If you fly into severe turbulence, which flight condition should you attempt to maintain?|Constant altitude and constant airspeed.|Level flight attitude.|Constant airspeed (VA).||| 4161|X|Which precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?|Ice pellets.|Hail.|Snow.||| 4162|X|Which weather condition can be expected when moist air flows from a relatively warm surface to a colder surface?|Fog.|Increased visibility.|Convective turbulence due to surface heating.||| 4163|X|Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because of|atmospheric stabilization around cities.|increased temperatures due to industrial heating.|an abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products.||| 4164|X|In which situation is advection fog most likely to form?|A light breeze blowing colder air out to sea.|Warm, moist air settling over a warmer surface under no wind conditions.|An air mass moving inland from the coast in winter.||| 4165|X|In what localities is advection fog most likely to occur?|Level inland areas.|Coastal areas.|Mountain slopes.||| 4166|X|What types of fog depend upon a wind in order to exist?|Steam fog and downslope fog.|Advection fog and upslope fog.|Precipitation induced fog and ground fog.||| 4167|X|What situation is most conducive to the formation of radiation fog?|Moist, tropical air moving over cold, offshore water.|The movement of cold air over much warmer water.|Warm, moist air over low, flatland areas on clear, calm nights.||| 4168|X|The strength and location of the jetstream is normally|stronger and farther north in the winter.|weaker and farther north in the summer.|stronger and farther north in the summer.||| 4169|X|Which conditions are favorable for the formation of radiation fog?|Moist air moving over colder ground or water.|Cloudy sky and a light wind moving saturated warm air over a cool surface.|Clear sky, little or no wind, small temperature/dewpoint spread, and over a land surface.||| 4170|X|The body of a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) covers a geographical proximity within a|15 to 20 mile radius of the center of an airport.|5 to 10 mile radius of the center of an airport.|10 to 15 mile radius of the center of an airport.||| 4171|X|Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can|reduce lift by as much as 50 percent and increase drag by as much as 50 percent.|reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.|increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 25 percent.||| 4172|X|What wind direction and speed is represented by the entry 9900+00 for 9,000 feet, on an Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)?|Light and variable; less than 5 knots.|Light and variable; less than 10 knots.|Vortex winds exceeding 200 knots.||| 4173|X|What conclusion(s) can be drawn from a 500 millibar Constant Pressure Chart for a planned flight at FL 180?|Winds aloft at FL 180 generally flow across the height contours.|Observed temperature, wind, and temperature/dewpoint spread along the proposed route can be approximated.|Upper highs, lows, troughs, and ridges will be depicted by the use of lines of equal pressure.||| 4174|X|What important information is provided by the Radar Summary Chart that is not shown on other weather charts?|Lines and cells of hazardous thunderstorms.|Areas of cloud cover and icing levels within the clouds.|Types of precipitation between reporting stations.||| 4175|X|What does a Convective Outlook (AC) describe for a following 24 hour period?|General thunderstorm activity.|A severe weather watch bulletin.|When forecast conditions are expected to continue beyond the valid period.||| 4176|X|Which primary source should be used to obtain forecast weather information at your destination for the planned ETA?|Area Forecast.|Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF).|Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts.||| 4177|X|A calm wind entry in a Terminal Aerodome Forecast (TAF) will be indicated when the wind is|6 knots or less.|3 knots or less.|9 knots or less.||| 4178|X|When the visibility is greater than 6 SM on a TAF it is expressed as|6PSM.|P6SM.|6SMP.||| 4179|X|"WND" in the categorical outlook in the Aviation Area Forecast means that the wind during that period is forecast to be|At least 15 knots or stronger.|At least 6 knots or stronger.|At least 20 knots or stronger.||| 4180|X|What is the forecast wind at 1800Z in the following TAF?\nKMEM 091740Z 1818 00000KT 1/2SM RAFG OVC005=|Not recorded.|Unknown.|Calm.||| 4181|X|SIGMET's are issued as a warning of weather conditions potentially hazardous|to all aircraft.|only to light aircraft operations.|particularly to light aircraft.||| 4182|X|What significant sky condition is reported in this METAR observation?\nMETAR KBNA 1250Z 33018KT 290V360 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN\nBLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42|Sky is obscured with vertical visibility of 800 feet.|Runway 31 ceiling is 2700 feet.|Measured ceiling is 300 feet overcast.||| 4183|X|Which meteorological condition is issued in the form of a SIGMET (WS)?|Sustained winds of 30 knots or greater at the surface.|Widespread sand or duststorms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.|Moderate icing.||| 4184|X|A pilot planning to depart at 1100Z on an IFR flight is particularly concerned about the hazard of icing. What sources reflect the most accurate information on icing conditions (current and forecast) at the time of departure?|Pilot weather reports (PIREP's), AIRMET's, and SIGMET's.|The Area Forecast, and the Freezing Level Chart.|Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart, and the Area Forecast.||| 4185|X|Which forecast provides specific information concerning expected sky cover, cloud tops, visibility, weather, and obstructions to vision in a route format?|DFW FA 131240.|249 TWEB 252317.|MEM TAF 132222.||| 4186|X|When are severe weather watch bulletins (WW) issued?|Unscheduled and issued as required.|Every 24 hours as required.|Every 12 hours as required.||| 4187|X|What is the maximum forecast period for AIRMET's?|Four hours.|Six hours.|Two hours.||| 4188|X|When is the temperature at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)?|When the temperature is standard for that altitude.|For the 3,000 foot altitude (level) or when the level is within 2,500 feet of station elevation.|Only when the winds are omitted for that altitude (level).||| 4189|X|When is the wind group at one of the forecast altitudes omitted at a specific location or station in the Winds and Temperatures Aloft Forecast (FD)? When the wind|is less than 10 knots.|is less than 5 knots.|at the altitude is within 1,500 feet of the station elevation.||| 4190|X|Decode the excerpt from the Winds and Temperature Aloft Forecast (FD) for OKC at 39,000 feet.\nFT 3000 6000 39000\nOKC 830558|Wind 130° at 50 knots, temperature -58 °C.|Wind 330° at 105 knots, temperature -58 °C.|Wind 330° at 205 knots, temperature -58 °C.||| 4191|X|Which values are used for winds aloft forecasts?|True direction and knots.|Magnetic direction and MPH.|Magnetic direction and knots.||| 4192|X|(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over PSB at FL 270? |280° true at 113 knots; ISA +3 °C.|260° magnetic at 93 knots; ISA +7 °C.|255° true at 93 knots; ISA +6 °C.||| 4193|X|(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over ALB at FL 270?|275( true at 97 knots; ISA +4 °C.|270° magnetic at 97 knots; ISA -4 °C.|260° true at 110 knots; ISA +5 (C.||| 4194|X|(Refer to figure 2.) What approximate wind direction, speed, and temperature (relative to ISA) should a pilot expect when planning for a flight over EMI at FL 270?|260° magnetic; 100 knots; ISA -5 °C.|265° true; 100 knots; ISA +3 °C.|270° true; 110 knots; ISA +5 °C.||| 4195|X|What flight planning information can a pilot derive from constant pressure charts?|Winds and temperatures aloft.|Levels of widespread cloud coverage.|Clear air turbulence and icing conditions.||| 4196|X|The station originating the following weather report has a field elevation of 1,300 feet MSL. From the bottom of the overcast cloud layer, what is its thickness? (tops of OVC are reported at 3800 feet)\nSPECI KOKC 2228Z 28024G36KT 3/4SM BKN008 OVC020 28/23 A3000 |500 feet.|1,700 feet.|2,500 feet.||| 4197|X|(Refer to figure 9.) The Severe Weather Outlook Chart depicts|areas of general thunderstorm activity (excluding severe) by the use of hatching on the chart.|areas of probable severe thunderstorms by the use of single hatched areas on the chart.|areas of forecast, severe or extreme turbulence, and areas of severe icing for the next 24 hours.||| 4198|X|Which response most closely interprets the following PIREP?\nUA/OV OKC 063064/TM 1522/FL080/TP C172/TA -04/WV 245040/TB LGT/RM IN CLR.|63 nautical miles on the 64 degree radial from Oklahoma City, thunderstorm and light rain at 1522 UTC.|64 nautical miles on the 63 degree radial from Oklahoma City VOR at 1522 UTC, flight level 8,000 ft. Type of aircraft is a Cessna 172.|Reported by a Cessna 172, turbulence and light rime icing in climb to 8,000 ft.||| 4199|X|A station is forecasting wind and temperature aloft at FL 390 to be 300° at 200 knots; temperature -54 °C. How would this data be encoded in the FD?|309954.|300054.|809954.||| 4200|X|Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?|Smooth air and poor visibility due to fog, haze, or low clouds.|Light wind shear and poor visibility due to haze and light rain.|Turbulent air and poor visibility due to fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.||| 4201|X|Area forecasts generally include a total forecast period of 18 hours and a geographical|group of states or well known area.|terminal area.|area less than 3000 sq. miles.||| 4202|X|A ceiling is defined as the height of the|lowest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that is reported as broken or overcast.|highest layer of clouds or obscuring phenomena aloft that covers over 6/10 of the sky.|lowest layer of clouds that contributed to the overall overcast.||| 4203|X|The reporting station originating this Aviation Routine Weather Report has a field elevation of 620 feet. If the reported sky cover is one continuous layer, what is its thickness? (tops of OVC are reported at 6500 feet)\nMETAR KMDW 121856Z AUTO 32005KT 1 1/2SM +RABR OVC007 17/16 A2980|5,180 feet.|5,880 feet.|5,800 feet.||| 4204|X|What is the wind shear forecast in the following TAF?\nTAF\nKCVG 231051Z 231212 12012KT 4SM -RA BR OVC008\nWS005/27050KT TEMPO 1719 1/2SM -RA FG\nFM1930 09012KT 1SM -DZ BR VV003 BECMG 2021 5SM HZ=|50 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.|5 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.|500 feet AGL from 270° at 50 KT.||| 4205|X|What is meant by the entry in the remarks section of METAR surface report for KBNA?\nMETAR KBNA 211250Z 33018KT 290V260 1/2SM R31/2700FT +SN\nBLSNFG VV008 00/M03 A2991 RMK RAE42SNB42|Rain ended 42 past the hour, snow began 42 past the hour.|Heavy blowing snow and fog on runway 31.|The wind is variable from 290° to 360.||| 4206|X|(Refer to figure 4.) What is the meaning of a bracket (]) plotted to the right of the station circle on a weather depiction chart?|The station gives local overview of flying conditions for a six hour period.|The station represents the en route conditions within a 50 mile radius.|The station is an automated observation location.||| 4207|X|(Refer to figure 4.) The Weather Depiction Chart indicates the heaviest precipitation is occurring in|north central Minnesota.|north central Florida.|central South Dakota.||| 4208|X|(Refer to figure 4.) The Weather Depiction Chart in the area of northwestern Wyoming, indicates |overcast with scattered rain showers.|500-foot ceilings and continuous rain, less than 3 miles visibility.|1,000-foot ceilings and visibility 3 miles or more.||| 4209|X|The Surface Analysis Chart depicts|actual pressure systems, frontal locations, cloud tops, and precipitation at the time shown on the chart.|frontal locations and expected movement, pressure centers, cloud coverage, and obstructions to vision at the time of chart transmission.|actual frontal positions, pressure patterns, temperature, dewpoint, wind, weather, and obstructions to vision at the valid time of the chart.||| 4210|X|A pilot reporting turbulence that momentarily causes slight, erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude should report it as|light turbulence.|moderate turbulence.|light chop.||| 4211|X|The Low-Level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart depicts weather conditions|that are forecast to exist at a valid time shown on the chart.|that existed at the time shown on the chart which is about 3 hours before the chart is received.|as they existed at the time the chart was prepared.||| 4212|X|Which meteorological conditions are depicted by a prognostic chart?|Interpretation of weather conditions for geographical areas between reporting stations.|Conditions existing at the time of the observation.|Conditions forecast to exist at a specific time shown on the chart.||| 4213|X|(Refer to figure 5.) What is the meaning of the symbol depicted as used on the U.S. Low-Level Significant Weather Prog Chart?|Showery precipitation (e.g. thunderstorms/rain showers) covering half or more of the area.|Showery precipitation (e.g. rain showers) embedded in an area of continuous rain covering half or more of the area.|Continuous precipitation (e.g. rain) covering half or more of the area.||| 4214|X|A prognostic chart depicts the conditions|existing at the surface during the past 6 hours.|which presently exist from the 1,000 millibar through the 700 millibar level.|forecast to exist at a specific time in the future.||| 4215|X|What information is provided by a Convective Outlook (AC)?|It provides prospects of both general and severe thunderstorm activity during the following 24 hours.|It indicates areas of probable convective turbulence and the extent of instability in the upper atmosphere (above 500 MB).|It describes areas of probable severe icing and severe or extreme turbulence during the next 24 hours.||| 4216|X|(Refer to figure 18, SFC PROG) A planned low altitude flight from northern Florida to southern Florida at 00Z is likely to encounter|intermittent rain or rain showers, moderate turbulence, and freezing temperatures above 8,000 feet.|showery precipitation, thunderstorms/rain showers covering half or more of the area.|showery precipitation covering less than half the area, no turbulence below 18,000 feet, and freezing temperatures above 12,000 feet.||| 4217|X|(Refer to figure 18, SFC-400MB.) The 24-Hour Low Level Significant Weather Prog at 12Z indicates that southwestern West Virginia will likely experience|ceilings less than 1,000 feet, visibility less than 3 miles.|clear sky and visibility greater than 6 miles.|ceilings 1,000 to 3,000 feet and visibility 3 to 5 miles.||| 4218|X|(Refer to figure 18, SFC-400MB.) The U.S. Low Level Significant Weather Surface Prog Chart at 00Z indicates that northwestern Colorado and eastern Utah can expect |moderate or greater turbulence above FL 240.|no turbulence is indicated.|moderate or greater turbulence from the surface to FL 240.||| 4219|X|(Refer to figure 18, SFC-PROG.) The chart symbols shown in the Gulf of Mexico at 12Z and extending into AL, GA, SC, and northern FL indicate a|hurricane.|tropical storm.|tornado originating in the Gulf of Mexico.||| 4220|X|Interpret this PIREP.\nMRB UA/OV MRB/TM1430/FL060/TPC182/SK BKN BL/WX RA/TB MDT.|Ceiling 6,000 feet intermittently below moderate thundershowers; turbulence increasing westward.|FL 60,000, intermittently below clouds; moderate rain, turbulence increasing with the wind.|At 6,000 feet; between layers; moderate turbulence; moderate rain.||| 4221|X|(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow E? |Frequent embedded thunderstorms, less than one eighth coverage, tops at FL 370.|Frequent cumulonimbus, five eighths to eight eighths coverage, bases below 24,000 feet MSL and tops at 37,000 feet MSL.|Frequent lightning in thunderstorms at FL 370.||| 4222|X|(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow D? |Forecast isolated thunderstorms, tops at FL 410, less than two fifths coverage.|Forecast isolated embedded cumulonimbus, bases below 24,000 feet MSL, tops at 41,000 feet MSL and less than one eighth coverage.|Existing isolated cumulonimbus, tops above 41,000 feet and less than one fifth coverage.||| 4223|X|(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow C? |Moderate turbulence at FL 320 within the area outlined by dashes.|Moderate to severe CAT has been reported at FL 320.|Severe CAT forecast within the area outlined by dashes from 32,000 feet MSL to below the lower limit of the chart.||| 4224|X|(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow B? |Moderate to severe turbulence from below 24,000 feet MSL to 33,000 feet MSL.|Light to moderate turbulence at and above 33,000 feet MSL.|Moderate to severe CAT is forecast to exist at FL 330.||| 4225|X|(Refer to figure 7.) What information is indicated by arrow A?|The height of the existing layer of CAT.|The height of the tropopause in hundreds of feet above MSL.|The height of the tropopause in meters above sea level.||| 4226|X|Which weather forecast describes prospects for an area coverage of both severe and general thunderstorms during the following 24 hours?|Convective outlook.|Severe Weather Watch Bulletin.|Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.||| 4227|X|Which feature is associated with the tropopause?|Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate.|Absence of wind and turbulent conditions.|Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.||| 4228|X|From which primary source should you obtain information regarding the weather expected to exist at your destination at your estimated time of arrival?|Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.|Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Chart.|Weather Depiction Chart.||| 4229|X|(Refer to figure 7.) What weather conditions are depicted within the area indicated by arrow F? |Occasionally embedded cumulonimbus, bases from 18,000 feet to 51,000 feet.|Two eighths to six eighths coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, tops at FL 510.|One eighth to four eighths coverage, occasional embedded thunderstorms, maximum tops at 51,000 feet MSL.||| 4230|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow A on the Radar Summary Chart?|Strong to very strong echoes; echo tops 30,000 feet MSL; thunderstorms and rain showers.|Moderate to strong echoes; echo tops 30,000 feet MSL; line movement toward the northwest.|Weak to moderate echoes; average echo bases 30,000 feet MSL; cell movement toward the southeast; rain showers with thunder.||| 4231|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow D on the Radar Summary Chart?|Intense to extreme echoes within the smallest contour, echo tops 29,000 feet MSL, and cell movement toward the northeast at 50 knots.|Echo tops 4,100 feet MSL, strong to very strong echoes within the smallest contour, and area movement toward the northeast at 50 knots.|Strong to very strong echoes within the smallest contour, echo bases 29,000 feet MSL, and cell in northeast Nebraska moving northeast at 50 knots.||| 4232|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow C on the Radar Summary Chart?|Average echo bases 2,800 feet MSL, thundershowers, and intense to extreme echo intensity.|Cell movement toward the northwest at 20 knots, intense echoes, and echo bases 28,000 feet MSL.|Area movement toward the northeast at 20 knots, strong to very strong echoes, and echo tops 28,000 feet MSL.||| 4233|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow B on the Radar Summary Chart?|Strong echoes, moderate rain showers, no cell movement.|Weak echoes, heavy rain showers, area movement toward the southeast.|Weak to moderate echoes, rain showers increasing in intensity.||| 4234|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow E on the Radar Summary Chart?|Thundershowers decreasing in intensity; area movement toward northwest at 15 knots; echo bases 30,000 feet MSL.|Highest echo tops 30,000 feet MSL, weak to moderate echoes, thunderstorms and rain showers, and cell movement toward northwest at 15 knots.|Echo bases 29,000 to 30,000 feet MSL, strong echoes, rain showers increasing in intensity, and area movement toward northwest at 15 knots.||| 4235|X|For most effective use of the Radar Summary Chart during preflight planning, a pilot should|utilize the chart as the only source of information regarding storms and hazardous conditions existing between reporting stations.|consult the chart to determine more accurate measurements of freezing levels, cloud cover, and wind conditions between reporting stations.|compare it with the charts, reports, and forecasts of a three-dimensional picture of clouds and precipitation.||| 4236|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow G on the Radar Summary Chart?|Strong to very strong echoes; area movement toward northeast at 15 knots; echo tops 10,000 feet MSL; light rain.|Area movement toward northeast at 15 knots; rain decreasing in intensity; echo bases 1,000 feet MSL; strong echoes.|Echo bases 10,000 feet MSL; cell movement toward northeast at 15 knots; weak to moderate echoes; rain.||| 4237|X|(Refer to figure 8.) What weather conditions are depicted in the area indicated by arrow F on the Radar Summary Chart?|Line of echoes; thunderstorms; highest echo tops 45,000 feet MSL; no line movement indicated.|Echo bases vary from 15,000 feet to 46,000 feet MSL; thunderstorms increasing in intensity; line of echoes moving rapidly toward the north.|Line of severe thunderstorms moving from south to north; echo bases vary from 4,400 feet to 4,600 feet MSL; extreme echoes.||| 4238|X|Hazardous wind shear is commonly encountered near the ground|during periods of strong temperature inversion and near thunderstorms.|during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots.|during periods when the wind velocity is stronger than 35 knots and near mountain valleys.||| 4239|X|(Refer to figure 9.) The Severe Weather Outlook Chart, which is used primarily for advance planning, provides what information?|A 24-hour severe weather outlook for possible general and severe thunderstorm activity.|An 18-hour categorical outlook with a 48-hour valid time for severe weather watch, thunderstorm lines, and of expected tornado activity.|A preliminary 12-hour outlook for severe thunderstorm activity and probable convective turbulence.||| 4240|X|(Refer to figure 9.) What is the significance of the annotation "SVR" in the hatched area on the 12Z 26 AUG panel?|Moderate risk area, surrounded by a slight risk area, of possible severe turbulence.|Possibility of severe thunderstorms.|Chance of severe low-level wind shear.||| 4241|X|The Hazardous Inflight Weather Advisory Service (HIWAS) is a continuous broadcast over selected VORs of|SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Severe Weather Forecasts Alerts (AWW), and Center Weather Advisiories.|SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, Wind Shear Advisiories, and Severe Weather Forecast Alerts (AWW).|Wind Shear Advisories, Radar Weather Reports, SIGMETs, CONVECTIVE SIGMETs, AIRMETs, and Center Weather Advisories (CWA).||| 4242|X|(Refer to figure 10.) The symbol on the TROP WIND SHEAR PROG indicated by arrow A represents the|wind direction at the tropopause (300°).|FL of the tropopause.|height of maximum wind shear (30,000 feet).||| 4243|X|(Refer to figure 20.) What is the maximum wind velocity forecast in the jet stream shown on the high level Significant Weather Prognostic Chart over Canada?|130.|80.|103.||| 4244|X|(Refer to figure 20.) What is the height of the tropopause over Kentucky? |34,000 feet - flight level.|34,000 feet MSL.|30,000 feet sloping to 40,000 feet MSL.||| 4245|X|(Refer to figure 10.) The reference to 6K (see arrow B) indicates |vertical wind velocity at 34,000 feet.|vertical wind shear per 1,000 feet.|wind velocity at 34,000 feet.||| 4246|X|(Refer to figure 12.) What is the approximate wind direction and velocity at 34,000 feet (see arrow C)?|330°/50 knots.|290°/50 knots.|090°/48 knots.||| 4247|X|(Refer to figure 12.) The wind direction and velocity on the Observed Winds Aloft Chart (see arrow A) is indicated from the|northeast at 35 knots.|southwest at 35 knots.|northwest at 47 knots.||| 4248|X|(Refer to figure 9.) The heavy line with an arrowhead delineates an area of probable general thunderstorm activity (AUG 25 panel) located|to the right of the line when facing in the direction of the arrow.|only in hatched areas.|to the right and inside the line extending south through Michigan, Oklahoma, and ending in North Carolina.||| 4249|X|(Refer to figure 12.) What is the approximate wind direction and velocity at CVG at 34,000 feet (see arrow A)?|040°/35 knots.|230°/35 knots.|097°/40 knots.||| 4250|X|(Refer to figure 12, arrow B.) What is the approximate wind direction and velocity at BOI (see arrow B)? |270°/55 knots.|250°/95 knots.|080°/95 knots.||| 4251|X|What is the expected duration of an individual microburst?|Two minutes with maximum winds lasting approximately 1 minute.|One microburst may continue for as long as 2 to 4 hours.|Seldom longer than 15 minutes from the time the burst strikes the ground until dissipation.||| 4252|X|Maximum downdrafts in a microburst encounter may be as strong as|8,000 feet per minute.|7,000 feet per minute.|6,000 feet per minute.||| 4253|X|An aircraft that encounters a headwind of 45 knots, within a microburst, may expect a total shear across the microburst of |90 knots.|40 knots.|80 knots.||| 4254|X|(Refer to figure 13.) If involved in a microburst encounter, in which aircraft positions will the most severe downdraft occur?|4 and 5.|3 and 4.|2 and 3.||| 4255|X|(Refer to figure 13.) When penetrating a microburst, which aircraft will experience an increase in performance without a change in pitch or power?|3.|1.|2.||| 4256|X|(Refer to figure 13.) The aircraft in position 3 will experience which effect in a microburst encounter?|Increasing tailwind.|Decreasing headwind.|Strong downdraft.||| 4257|X|(Refer to figure 13.) What effect will a microburst encounter have upon the aircraft in position 4?|Strong tailwind.|Significant performance increase.|Strong updraft.||| 4258|X|(Refer to figure 13.) How will the aircraft in position 4 be affected by a microburst encounter? |Performance increasing with a tailwind and updraft.|Performance decreasing with a tailwind and downdraft.|Performance decreasing with a headwind and downdraft.||| 4259|X|(Refer to figures 21 and 21A, 22 and 22A, 23 and 23A, 24, 25 and 25A, and 26 and 26A.) After departing GJT and arriving at Durango Co., La Plata Co. Airport, you are unable to land because of weather.\nHow long can you hold over DRO before departing for return flight to the alternate, Grand Junction Co., Walker Field Airport?\nTotal useable fuel on board, 68 gallons.\nWind and velocity at 16,000, 2308-16°.\nAverage fuel consumption 15 GPH.|1 hour 33 minutes.|1 hour 42 minutes.|1 hour 37 minutes.||| 4260|X|(Refer to FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight from GJT to DRO.\nRoute of flight Figure 21\nFlight log & MAG VAR Figure 22\nEn route chart Figure 24\nFT 12,000 18,000\nFNM 2408-05 2208-21|58 minutes.|1 hour 08 minutes.|1 hour 03 minutes.||| 4261|X|(Refer to figure 24.) Proceeding southbound on V187, (vicinity of Cortez VOR) contact is lost with Denver Center. What frequency should be used to contact Denver Center?|108.4.|133.425.|122.2.||| 4262|X|(Refer to figures 22 and 24.) For planning purposes, what would the highest MEA be on the flight planned between Grand Junction, Walker Airport, and Durango, La Plata Co. Airport?|12,000 feet.|15,000 feet.|16,000 feet.||| 4263|X|(Refer to figure 24.) At what point should a VOR changeover be made from JNC VOR to MANCA intersection southbound on V187?|36 NM south of JNC.|74 NM south of JNC.|52 NM south of JNC.||| 4264|X|(Refer to figure 24.) What is the MOCA between JNC and MANCA intersection on V187?|12,000 feet MSL.|13,700 feet MSL.|10,900 feet MSL.||| 4265|X|(Refer to figures 21, 22, and 24.) What fuel would be consumed on the flight between Grand Junction Co. and Durango, Co. if the average fuel consumption is 15 GPH.|20 gallons.|25 gallons.|17 gallons.||| 4266|X|(Refer to figure 27.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan? |A.|T.|U.||| 4267|X|(Refer to figures 27 and 28.) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is -5 °C?|139 KCAS.|142 KCAS.|134 KCAS.||| 4268|X|(Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan.\nRoute of flight Figures 27, 28, 29 and 29A, 30, and 31\nFlight log & MAG VAR Figure 28\nGNATS ONE DEPARTURE and Excerpt from AFD Figure 30\nFT 3000 6000 9000\nOTH 0507 2006+03 2215-05|1 hour 20 minutes.|1 hour 10 minutes.|1 hour 15 minutes.||| 4269|X|(Refer to figure 30.) During the arc portion of the SID (GNATS1.MOURN), a left crosswind is encountered. Where should the bearing pointer of an RMI be referenced relative to the wingtip to compensate for wind drift and maintain the 15 DME arc?|Behind the left wingtip reference point.|Behind the right wingtip reference point.|On the right wingtip reference point.||| 4270|X|(Refer to figure 30.) Using an average groundspeed of 120 knots, what minimum rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 4,100 feet as specified on the SID?|500 feet per minute.|400 feet per minute.|800 feet per minute.||| 4271|X|(Refer to figure 30.) Which restriction to the use of the OED VORTAC would be applicable?|R 333 beyond 30 NM below 6,500 feet.|R 210 beyond 35 NM below 8,500 feet.|R 251 within 15 NM below 6,100 feet.||| 4272|X|(Refer to figures 30 and 30A.) What is your position relative to GNATS intersection and the SID departure routing?|Left of departure course and have not passed GNATS.|On departure course and past GNATS.|Right of departure course and past GNATS.||| 4273|X|(Refer to figures 27 and 30.) To which maximum service volume distance from the OED VORTAC should you expect to receive adequate signal coverage for navigation at the flight planned altitude?|80 NM.|40 NM.|100 NM.||| 4274|X|(Refer to figures 29 and 29A.) What is the TDZ elevation for RWY 16 on Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?|396 feet MSL.|365 feet MSL.|363 feet MSL.||| 4275|X|(Refer to figure 29.) What are the hours of operation (local standard time) of the control tower at Eugene/Mahlon Sweet Field?|0800 2300.|0600 0000.|0700 0100.||| 4276|X|(Refer to figure 29.) Using a groundspeed of 90 knots on the ILS final approach course, what rate of descent should be used as a reference to maintain the ILS glide slope?|555 feet per minute.|480 feet per minute.|415 feet per minute.||| 4277|X|(Refer to figure 32.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|R.|A.|C.||| 4278|X|(Refer to figure 32.) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is +8 °C?|154 KCAS.|157 KCAS.|163 KCAS.||| 4279|X|(Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan.\nRoute of flight Figures 32, 33, 34, 35, & 36\nFlight log & MAG VAR Figure 33\nRNAV RWY 33 & Excerpt from AFD Figure 36\nFT 3000 6000 9000 12000\nDAL 2027 2239+13 2240+08 2248+05 |1 hour 35 minutes.|1 hour 41 minutes.|1 hour 46 minutes.||| 4280|X|(Refer to figure 34.) At which altitude and location on V573 would you expect the navigational signal of the HOT VOR/DME to be unreliable?|3,000 feet at APINE intersection.|4,000 feet at ELMMO intersection.|2,600 feet at MARKI intersection.||| 4281|X|(Refer to figures 35 and 37.) What is your position relative to the CONNY intersection on the BUJ.BUJ3 transition?|Left of the TXK R 266 and past the BUJ R 065.|Right of the TXK R 270 and approaching the BUJ R 245.|Left of the TXK R-272 and approaching the BUJ R-059°.||| 4282|X|(Refer to figures 36A and 36B.) Under which condition should the missed approach procedure for the RNAV RWY 33 approach be initiated?|After the MDA is reached and 1.8 DME fix from the MAP waypoint.|When passage of the MAP waypoint is shown on the ambiguity indicator.|Immediately upon reaching the 5.0 DME from the FAF.||| 4283|X|(Refer to figures 32, 36, 36A, and 36B.) What is the MDA and visibility criteria respectively for the S 33 approach procedure?|1,240 feet MSL; 1 SM.|1,280 feet MSL; 1 and 1/4 SM.|1,300 feet MSL; 1 SM.||| 4284|X|How can a pilot determine if a Global Positioning System (GPS) installed in an aircraft is approved for IFR enroute and IFR approaches?|Flight manual supplement.|GPS operator's manual.|Aircraft owner's handbook.||| 4285|X|(Refer to figures 36A and 36B.) What is the minimum number of waypoints required for the complete RNAV RWY 33 approach procedure including the IAF's and missed approach procedure? |Two waypoints.|One waypoint.|Three waypoints.||| 4286|X|(Refer to figures 35 and 35A.) At which point does the BUJ.BUJ3 arrival begin?|At BOGAR intersection.|At the BUJ VORTAC.|At the TXK VORTAC.||| 4287|X|(Refer to figure 34.) For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight on V573 from the HOT VORTAC to the TXK VORTAC? |13,999 feet MSL.|14,500 feet MSL.|16,000 feet MSL.||| 4288|X|(Refer to figure 38.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|R.|A.|C.||| 4289|X|(Refer to figure 38.) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is +05 °C?|139 KCAS.|133 KCAS.|129 KCAS.||| 4290|X|(Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.) Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan.\nRoute of flight Figures 38, 39, and 40\nFlight log & MAG VAR Figure 39\nACTON TWO ARRIVAL Figure 41\nFT 3000 6000 9000 12000\nABI 2033+13 2141+09 2142+05|1 hour 31 minutes.|1 hour 24 minutes.|1 hour 26 minutes.||| 4291|X|(Refer to figure 40.) For planning purposes, what is the highest useable altitude for an IFR flight on V16 between the BGS and ABI VORTACs?|6,500 feet MSL.|17,000 feet MSL.|18,000 feet MSL.||| 4292|X|(Refer to figures 41 and 41A.) At which point does the AQN.AQN2 arrival begin?|CREEK intersection.|ACTON VORTAC.|ABI VORTAC.||| 4293|X|(Refer to figures 41 and 41A.) Which frequency would you anticipate using to contact Regional Approach Control? (ACTON TWO ARRIVAL).|124.15.|119.05.|125.8.||| 4294|X|(Refer to figures 41 and 41A.) On which heading should you plan to depart CREEK intersection? |350°.|010°.|040°.||| 4295|X|(Refer to figures 41, 42, 42A and 42B.) Which frequency should you expect to use for Regional Approach Control, control tower, and ground control respectively at DFW?|125.8; 124.15; 121.8.|119.05; 124.15; 121.8.|119.05; 126.55; 121.65.||| 4296|X|(Refer to figures 42A and 42B.) Which navigational information and services would be available to the pilot when using the localizer frequency? |Localizer and glide slope, DME, and no voice capability.|Localizer and glide slope, DME, TACAN with no voice capability.|Localizer information only, ATIS and DME are available.||| 4297|X|(Refer to figures 42, 42A and 42B.) What is the difference in elevation (in feet MSL) between the airport elevation and the TDZE for RWY 36L?|15 feet.|18 feet.|22 feet.||| 4298|X|(Refer to figures 42A and 42B.) What rate of descent should you plan to use initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 36L approach? (Use 120 knots groundspeed.)|530 feet per minute.|425 feet per minute.|635 feet per minute.||| 4299|X|(Refer to figures 42A, 42B and 43.) What is your position relative to CHAAR intersection? The aircraft is level at 3,000 feet MSL.|Left of the localizer course approaching CHAAR intersection and below the glide slope.|Right of the localizer course, past CHAAR intersection and above the glide slope.|Right of the localizer course approaching CHAAR intersection and approaching the glide slope.||| 4300|X|(Refer to figure 44.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|A.|R.|C.||| 4301|X|(Refer to figure 44.) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is +5 °C?|150 KCAS.|147 KCAS.|154 KCAS.||| 4302|X|Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)\nRoute of flight Figures 44, 45, 46, and 47\nFlight log & MAG VAR Figure 45\nGROMO TWO DEPARTURE and Excerpt from AFD Figure 46\nFT 3000 6000 9000 12000\nYKM 1615 1926+12 2032+08 2035+05|54 minutes.|1 hour 07 minutes.|1 hour 02 minutes.||| 4303|X|(Refer to figure 46.) Using an average groundspeed of 140 knots, what minimum indicated rate of climb must be maintained to meet the required climb rate (feet per NM) to 6,300 feet as specified on the SID?|816 feet per minute.|350 feet per minute.|583 feet per minute.||| 4304|X|(Refer to figures 46 and 48.) What is your position relative to the 9 DME ARC and the 206° radial of the SID?|Inside the 9 DME arc and approaching R 206.|On the 9 DME arc and approaching R 206.|Outside the 9 DME arc and past R 206.||| 4305|X|(Refer to figure 46.) What are the hours of operation (local time) of the ATIS for the Yakima Air Terminal when daylight savings time is in effect? |0600 to 2200 local.|0500 to 2100 local.|0700 to 2300 local.||| 4306|X|(Refer to figures 49 and 49A.) What should be used to establish the MAP on the LORAN RNAV RWY 10 approach at Portland International Airport? |6 NM from FAF.|3.5 NM from PONCO waypoint.|2.5 NM from FAF.||| 4307|X|(Refer to figures 44, 49 and 49A.) What is the MDA and visibility criteria during the LORAN RNAV RWY S-10R approach at Portland International?|900 MSL; visibility RVR/24.|900 MSL; visibility 1 and 1/4 SM.|900 MSL; visibility RVR/40.||| 4308|X|(Refer to figures 49 and 49A.) How many waypoints are required to fly the complete LORAN RNAV RWY 10 (Portland International) approach procedure, including the missed approach procedure?|3.|4.|2.||| 4309|X|(Refer to figures 49 and 49A.) What is the TDZE for RWY 10R at Portland International Airport?|26 feet MSL.|20 feet MSL.|900 feet MSL.||| 4310|X|(Refer to figures 49 and 49A.) The aircraft used on this flight has vertical guidance capability with the RNAV equipment. What is the angle of the glidepath from the FAF to the 2.5 DME from the MAP waypoint?|3.20°.|2.88°.|3.00°.||| 4311|X|(Refer to figures 49 and 49A.) At which point or fix may descent be initiated to the MDA on the LORAN RNAV RWY 10R approach (Portland International)?|6 NM from the MAP waypoint.|3.5 NM from PONCO waypoint.|WETTR waypoint.||| 4312|X|(Refer to figure 50.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|U.|R.|T.||| 4313|X|(Refer to figure 50.) What CAS must be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude? (Temperature 0 °C.)|147 KCAS.|136 KCAS.|140 KCAS.||| 4314|X|Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)\nRoute of flight Figures 50, 51, 52, and 53\nFlight log and MAG VAR Figure 5\nHABUT ONE DEPARTURE and Excerpt from AFD Figure 52\nFT 3000 6000 9000\nSBA 0610 2115+05 2525+00|46 minutes.|43 minutes.|51 minutes.||| 4315|X|(Refer to figures 52 and 54.) What is the aircraft's position relative to the HABUT intersection? (The VOR 2 is tuned to 116.5.)|South of the localizer and past the GVO R 163.|North of the localizer and approaching the GVO R 163.|South of the localizer and approaching the GVO R 163.||| 4316|X|(Refer to figure 52.) Using an average groundspeed of 100 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified by the SID?|642 feet per minute.|425 feet per minute.|580 feet per minute.||| 4317|X|(Refer to figure 53.) Where is the VOR COP on V27 between the GVO and MQO VORTACs? |20 DME from MQO VORTAC.|30 DME from SBA VORTAC.|20 DME from GVO VORTAC.||| 4318|X|(Refer to figure 53.) What service is indicated by the solid square in the radio aids to navigation box for PRB VORTAC?|En Route Flight Advisory Service available.|Availability of HIWAS.|VOR with TACAN compatible DME.||| 4319|X|(Refer to figures 55 and 55A.) Using an average groundspeed of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 2,400 feet MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the aircraft to arrive at 2,000 feet MSL at the FAF?|600 feet per minute.|200 feet per minute.|400 feet per minute.||| 4320|X|(Refer to figures 55 and 55A.) As a guide in making range corrections, how many degrees of relative bearing change should be used for each one half mile deviation from the desired arc?|5° maximum.|2° to 3°.|10° to 20°.||| 4321|X|(Refer to figures 55 and 55A.) Under which condition should a missed approach procedure be initiated if the runway environment (Paso Robles Municipal Airport) is not in sight? |After descent to 1,440 feet or reaching the 1 NM DME, whichever occurs first.|When you reach the established missed approach point and determine the visibility is less than 1 mile.|After descending to 1,440 feet MSL.||| 4322|X|(Refer to figure 56.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|R.|U.|A.||| 4323|X|(Refer to figure 56.) What CAS should be used to obtain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is +5°?|97 KCAS.|101 KCAS.|103 KCAS.||| 4324|X|Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)\nRoute of flight Figures 56, 57, 58, and 59\nFlight log & MAG VAR Figure 57\nExcerpt from AFD (CLL ) Figure 58\nFT 3000 6000 9000\nHOU 0507 1015+05 2225+00|1 hour 06 minutes.|1 hour 10 minutes.|1 hour 14 minutes.||| 4325|X|(Refer to figure 58.) On which frequencies could you receive the College Station FSS?|118.5, 122.65, 122.2.|122.65, 122.2.|122.65, 122.2, 122.1, 113.3.||| 4326|X|(Refer to figure 58.) Which indications on the VOR receivers and DME at the Easterwood Field VOR receiver checkpoint would meet the regulatory requirement for this flight?\nVOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM DME\nNo. 1 No. 2|097° FROM 101° FROM 3.3|097° TO 096° TO 3.2|277° FROM 280° FROM 3.3||| 4327|X|(Refer to figures 59 and 60.) What are the operating hours (local standard time) of the Houston EFAS? |0700 to 2300.|0600 to 2200.|1800 to 1000.||| 4328|X|(Refer to figures 56, 60A and 60B.) To which value may the visibility criteria be reduced, if any, for the S ILS 4 approach?|RVR 12.|RVR 20.|RVR 16.||| 4329|X|(Refer to figure 59.) Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, what is the minimum equipment for navigation of helicopters on an IFR cross country flight when in the immediate vicinity of the HUMBLE VORTAC?|Transponder with 3/A 4096 code capability and two way communications.|VOR (or TACAN) and two way communications.|VOR receiver, transponder with 3/A 4096 code capability and two way communications.||| 4330|X|(Refer to figures 60A and 60B.) What is the DH and visibility criteria for a helicopter for the ILS RWY 4 approach if the MM is inoperative?|246/12.|246/24.|460/12.||| 4331|X|(Refer to figures 60A, 60B, and 61.) What is your position relative to the PLATS intersection, glide slope, and the localizer course? |Approaching PLATS, above the glide slope, and left of the localizer course.|Past PLATS, above the glide slope, and right of the localizer course.|Past PLATS, below the glide slope, and right of the localizer course.||| 4332|X|(Refer to figures 60A and 60B.) What is the elevation of the TDZE for RWY 4? |46 feet MSL.|54 feet MSL.|70 feet MSL.||| 4333|X|(Refer to figure 62.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|U.|A.|R.||| 4334|X|(Refer to figure 62.) What CAS should be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is +15 °C? |96 KCAS.|101 KCAS.|91 KCAS.||| 4335|X|Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)\nRoute of flight Figures 62, 63, 64, and 65\nFlight log & MAG VAR Figure 63\nExcerpt from AFD (LFT) Figure 64\nFT 3000 6000 9000\nMSY 1422 1626+15 1630+10|56 minutes.|1 hour 02 minutes.|1 hour 07 minutes.||| 4336|X|(Refer to figure 65.) Which point would be the appropriate VOR COP on V552 from the LFT to the TBD VORTACs?|34 DME from the LFT VORTAC.|CLYNT intersection.|HATCH intersection.||| 4337|X|(Refer to figure 64.) The course deviation indicator (CDI) are centered. Which indications on the No. 1 and No. 2 VOR receivers over the Lafayette Regional Airport would meet the requirements for the VOR receiver check?\n VOR TO/FROM VOR TO/FROM\n No. 1 No. 2|341° FROM 330° FROM|160° FROM 162° FROM|162° TO 346° FROM||| 4338|X|(Refer to figures 65 and 66.) What is your position relative to GRICE intersection? |Right of V552 and past GRICE intersection.|Right of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection.|Left of V552 and approaching GRICE intersection.||| 4339|X|(Refer to figures 65 and 67.) What is the significance of the symbol at GRICE intersection? |The localizer has an ATC function in addition to course guidance.|It signifies a localizer only approach is available at Harry P. Williams Memorial.|GRICE intersection also serves as the FAF for the ILS approach procedure to Harry P. Williams Memorial.||| 4340|X|(Refer to figure 68 or 68A.) Upon which maximum airspeed is the COPTER VOR/DME 117° approach category based?|80 knots.|100 knots.|90 knots.||| 4341|X|(Refer to figure 68 or 68A.) What minimum visibility must exist to execute the COPTER VOR/DME 117° approach procedure?|3/4 mile.|1/4 mile.|1/2 mile.||| 4342|X|(Refer to figure 68 or 68A.) What is the VASI approach slope angle for RWY 12 at Houma Terrebonne?|3.0°.|2.5°.|2.8°.||| 4343|X|(Refer to figure 68 or 68A.) What would be the approach minimums if you must use the Moisant Field altimeter settings?|440 1.|480 and 1/2.|580 and 1/2.||| 4344|X|(Refer to figure 69.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|A.|U.|B.||| 4345|X|(Refer to figure 69.) What CAS should be used to maintain the filed TAS if the outside air temperature is +05 °C?|119 KCAS.|124 KCAS.|126 KCAS.||| 4346|X|Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)\nRoute of flight Figures 69, 70, and 71\nFlight log and MAG VAR Figure 70\nJUDDS TWO ARRIVAL\n and Excerpt from AFD Figures 72 and 72A\nFT 3000 6000 9000\nBDL 3320 3425+05 3430+00|1 hour 14 minutes.|50 minutes.|58 minutes.||| 4347|X|(Refer to figures 71 and 71A.) What is your position relative to the Flosi intersection Northbound on V213?|West of V213 and post the Flosi intersection.|West of V213 and approaching the Flosi intersection.|East of V213 and approaching the Flosi intersection.||| 4348|X|(Refer to figures 70 and 71.) Which VORTAC along the proposed route of flight could provide HIWAS information?|KINGSTON VORTAC.|SPARTA VORTAC.|HUGUENOT VORTAC.||| 4349|X|(Refer to figure 72 or 72A.) At which location or condition does the IGN.JUDDS2 arrival begin? |IGN VORTAC.|JUDDS intersection.|BRISS intersection.||| 4350|X|(Refer to figure 72.) How many precision approach procedures are published for Bradley International Airport?|One.|Three.|Four.||| 4351|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) What is the minimum altitude at which you should intercept the glide slope on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?|3,000 feet MSL.|1,690 feet MSL.|1,800 feet MSL.||| 4352|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) At which indication or occurrence should you initiate the published missed approach procedure for the ILS RWY 6 approach provided the runway environment is not in sight?|When reaching 374 feet MSL indicated altitude.|Upon reaching 374 feet AGL.|When 3 minutes (at 90 knots groundspeed) have expired or reaching 374 feet MSL, whichever occurs first.||| 4353|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) Which sequence of marker beacon indicator lights, and their respective codes, will you receive on the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure to the MAP?|Amber - alternate dots and dashes; blue - dashes.|Blue - dashes; amber - alternate dots and dashes.|Blue - alternate dots and dashes; amber - dashes.||| 4354|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) Using an average groundspeed of 90 knots on the final approach segment, what rate of descent should be used initially to establish the glidepath for the ILS RWY 6 approach procedure?|480 feet per minute.|395 feet per minute.|555 feet per minute.||| 4355|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) What is the touchdown zone elevation for RWY 6?|200 feet AGL.|270 feet MSL.|174 feet MSL.||| 4356|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) After passing the OM, Bradley Approach Control advises you that the MM on the ILS RWY 6 approach is inoperative. Under these circumstances, what adjustments, if any, are required to be made to the DH and visibility? |No adjustments are required.|DH 424/24.|DH 374/24.||| 4357|X|(Refer to figure 73 or 73A.) Which runway and landing environment lighting is available for approach and landing on RWY 6 at Bradley International? |HIRL, REIL, and VASI.|HIRL and VASI.|ALSF2 and HIRL.||| 4358|X|(Refer to figure 74.) What aircraft equipment code should be entered in block 3 of the flight plan?|U.|T.|A.||| 4359|X|(Refer to figure 74.) What CAS should be used to maintain the filed TAS at the flight planned altitude if the outside air temperature is +5 °C? |139 KCAS.|129 KCAS.|133 KCAS.||| 4360|X|Determine the time to be entered in block 10 of the flight plan. (Refer to the FD excerpt below, and use the wind entry closest to the flight planned altitude.)\nRoute of flight Figures 74, 75, 76, 77, and 78\nFlight log & MAG VAR Figure 75\nVOR indications\n and Excerpts from AFD Figure 76\nFT 6000 9000 12000 18000\nBIL 2414 2422+11 2324+05 2126-11|1 hour 25 minutes.|1 hour 20 minutes.|1 hour 15 minutes.||| 4361|X|(Refer to figure 77.) At which point does the basic SID terminate?|Over the BOZEMAN VOR.|At STAKK intersection.|When Helena Departure Control establishes radar contact.||| 4362|X|(Refer to figure 76.) Which indication would be an acceptable accuracy check of both VOR receivers when the airplane is located on the VOR receiver checkpoint at the Helena Regional Airport?|A.|C.|B.||| 4363|X|(Refer to figure 77.) At which minimum altitude should you cross the STAKK intersection? |1,400 feet MSL.|10,200 feet MSL.|6,500 feet MSL.||| 4364|X|(Refer to figure 77.) Using an average groundspeed of 140 knots, what minimum rate of climb would meet the required minimum climb rate per NM as specified on the SID? |475 feet per minute.|700 feet per minute.|350 feet per minute.||| 4365|X|(Refer to figures 76 and 77.) Which en route low altitude navigation chart would cover the proposed routing at the BOZEMAN VORTAC?|L 9.|L 2.|L 7.||| 4366|X|(Refer to figure 78.) What is the maximum altitude that you may flight plan an IFR flight on V 86 EASTBOUND between BOZEMAN and BILLINGS VORTACs? |17,000 feet MSL.|14,500 feet MSL.|18,000 feet MSL.||| 4367|X|(Refer to figures 78 and 79.) What is your position relative to the VOR COP southeast bound on V86 between the BOZEMAN and LIVINGSTON VORTACs? The No. 1 VOR is tuned to 116.1 and the No. 2 VOR is tuned to 112.2. |Past the LVM R-246 and east of the BZN R-110.|Past the LVM R-246 and west of the BZN R-110.|Approaching the LVM R-246 and west of the BZN R-110.||| 4368|X|(Refer to figures 74 and 80.) Which aircraft approach category should be used for a circling approach for a landing on RWY 25?|B.|A.|C.||| 4369|X|(Refer to figure 80.) How many initial approach fixes serve the VOR/DME RWY 27R (Billings Logan) approach procedure?|Four.|Five.|Three.||| 4370|X|(Refer to figure 78.) What is the minimum crossing altitude over the BOZEMAN VORTAC for a flight southeast bound on V86?|9,700 feet MSL.|8,500 feet MSL.|9,300 feet MSL.||| 4371|X|(Refer to figure 80.) What is the TDZE for landing on RWY 27R?|3,649 feet MSL.|3,514 feet MSL.|3,450 feet MSL.||| 4372|X|What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using a VOT?|Plus or minus 4°.|Plus or minus 6°.|Plus or minus 8°.||| 4373|X|When is a pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft?|When weather conditions permit, regardless of whether operating under IFR or VFR.|Only when advised by ATC.|At all times when not in radar contact with ATC.||| 4374|X|You are flying an airship under an IFR flight plan and experience two-way communications radio failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation, you should continue your flight under|VFR and proceed to your flight plan destination.|IFR and maintain the last assigned route and altitude to your flight plan destination.|VFR and land as soon as practicable.||| 4375|X|The aircraft's transponder fails during flight within Class D airspace.|The pilot should immediately request clearance to depart the Class D airspace.|Pilot must immediately request priority handling to proceed to destination.|No deviation is required because a transponder is not required in Class D airspace.||| 4376|X|When using VOT to make a VOR receiver check, the CDI should be centered and the OBS should indicate that the aircraft is on the|180 radial.|360 radial.|090 radial.||| 4377|X|How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the aircraft is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?|Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.|With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.|Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.||| 4378|X|When the CDI needle is centered during an airborne VOR check, the omnibearing selector and the OBS indicator should read|0° TO, only if you are due south of the VOR.|within 6° of the selected radial.|within 4° of the selected radial.||| 4379|X|What does declaring ``minimum fuel'' to ATC imply?|Merely an advisory that indicates an emergency situation is possible should any undue delay occur.|Emergency handling is required to the nearest useable airport.|Traffic priority is needed to the destination airport.||| 4380|X|When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1,000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of between|500 feet per minute and 1,500 feet per minute.|1000 feet per minute and 2,000 feet per minute.|500 feet per minute and 1,000 feet per minute.||| 4381|X|During an IFR flight in IMC, a distress condition is encountered, (fire, mechanical, or structural failure). The pilot should|contact ATC and advise that an urgency condition exists and request priority consideration.|wait until the situation is immediately perilous before declaring an emergency.|not hesitate to declare an emergency and obtain an amended clearance.||| 4382|X|(Refer to figure 81.) When checking a dual VOR system by use of a VOT, which illustration indicates the VOR's are satisfactory?|4.|1.|2.||| 4383|X|While airborne, what is the maximum permissible variation between the two indicated bearings when checking one VOR system against the other?|Plus or minus 6° when set to identical radials of a VOR.|Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR.|4° between the two indicated bearings to a VOR.||| 4384|X|How should the pilot make a VOR receiver check when the airplane is located on the designated checkpoint on the airport surface?|Set the OBS on 180° plus or minus 4°; the CDI should center with a FROM indication.|Set the OBS on the designated radial. The CDI must center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a FROM indication.|With the aircraft headed directly toward the VOR and the OBS set to 000°, the CDI should center within plus or minus 4° of that radial with a TO indication.||| 4385|X|(Refer to figure 82.) Which is an acceptable range of accuracy when performing an operational check of dual VOR's using one system against the other?|4.|2.|1.||| 4386|X|Where can the VOT frequency for a particular airport be found?|In the Airport/Facility Directory and on the A/G Voice Communication Panel of the En Route Low Altitude Chart.|Only in the Airport/Facility Directory.|On the IAP Chart and in the Airport/Facility Directory.||| 4387|X|Which indications are acceptable tolerances when checking both VOR receivers by use of the VOT?|176° TO and 003° FROM, respectively.|001° FROM and 005° FROM, respectively.|360° TO and 003° TO, respectively.||| 4388|X|In which publication can the VOR receiver ground checkpoint(s) for a particular airport be found?|Airport/Facility Directory.|Airman's Information Manual.|En Route Low Altitude Chart.||| 4389|X|Which is the maximum tolerance for the VOR indication when the CDI is centered and the airplane is directly over the airborne checkpoint?|Plus or minus 7° of the designated radial.|Plus or minus 8° of the designated radial.|Plus or minus 6° of the designated radial.||| 4390|X|When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight?|At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC.|When passing 12,500 feet MSL.|Only when ATC requests Mode C.||| 4391|X|When making an airborne VOR check, what is the maximum allowable tolerance between the two indicators of a dual VOR system (units independent of each other except the antenna)?|6° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.|4° between the two indicated radials of a VOR.|Plus or minus 4° when set to identical radials of a VOR.||| 4392|X|What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads ``... CRUISE SIX THOUSAND ...''?|The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.|Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.|The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.||| 4393|X|What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude?|Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet.|Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute.|Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level.||| 4394|X|When departing from an airport not served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that|the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time.|ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time.|ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time.||| 4395|X|What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft? |Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification.|Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation.|Read back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.||| 4396|X|Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.)|Clearance limit, and SID Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.|Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight.|Destination airport, altitude, and SID Name Number Transition, if appropriate.||| 4397|X|Which distance is displayed by the DME indicator?|Slant range distance in SM.|Slant range distance in NM.|Line of sight direct distance from aircraft to VORTAC in SM.||| 4398|X|On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control:|CLEARED TO DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED -- MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND -- SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE -- DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. [new line]An abbreviated clearance, such as this, will always contain the|B. transponder code.|A. departure control frequency.||| 4399|X|Where does the DME indicator have the greatest error between ground distance to the VORTAC and displayed distance?|High altitudes far from the VORTAC.|High altitudes close to the VORTAC.|Low altitudes far from the VORTAC.||| 4400|X|For operations off established airways at 17,000 feet MSL in the contiguous U.S., (H) Class VORTAC facilities used to define a direct route of flight should be no farther apart than|75 NM.|100 NM.|200 NM.||| 4401|X|What does the Runway Visual Range (RVR) value, depicted on certain straight in IAP Charts, represent?|The horizontal distance a pilot should see down the runway from the approach end of the runway.|The slant visual range a pilot should see down the final approach and during landing.|The slant range distance the pilot can see down the runway while crossing the threshold on glide slope.||| 4402|X|How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?|Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.|Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the true altitude to compare with the field elevation.|Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.||| 4403|X|When are ATIS broadcasts updated?|Every 30 minutes if weather conditions are below basic VFR; otherwise, hourly.|Upon receipt of any official weather, regardless of content change or reported values.|Only when the ceiling and/or visibility changes by a reportable value.||| 4404|X|Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast specifically implies that|the ceiling is more than 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.|the sky condition is clear and visibility is unrestricted.|the ceiling is at least 3,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.||| 4405|X|The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from|the ATIS broadcast.|Notices to Airmen (Class II).|the FSS.||| 4406|X|From what source can you obtain the latest FDC NOTAM's?|Notices to Airmen publications.|Airport/Facility Directory.|FAA AFSS/FSS.||| 4407|X|When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated?|Any time an emergency occurs.|When priority has been given.|When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.||| 4408|X|The operation of an airport rotating beacon during daylight hours may indicate that|the in flight visibility is less than 3 miles and the ceiling is less than 1,500 feet within Class E airspace.|the ground visibility is less than 3 miles and/or the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet in Class B, C, or D airspace.|an IFR clearance is required to operate within the airport traffic area.||| 4409|X|What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating from an airport within Class C airspace? |Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft.|Position and altitude of all traffic within 2 miles of the IFR pilot's line of flight and altitude.|Separation from all aircraft operating in Class C airspace.||| 4410|X|What indication should a pilot receive when a VOR station is undergoing maintenance and may be considered unreliable?|No coded identification, but possible navigation indications.|A voice recording on the VOR frequency announcing that the VOR is out of service for maintenance.|Coded identification, but no navigation indications.||| 4411|X|A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by|removal of the identification feature.|broadcasting a maintenance alert signal on the voice channel.|removal of the navigational feature.||| 4412|X|What is the meaning of a single coded identification received only once approximately every 30 seconds from a VORTAC?|The DME component is operative and the VOR component is inoperative.|VOR and DME components are both operative, but voice identification is out of service.|The VOR and DME components are operative.||| 4413|X|Which DME indication should you receive when you are directly over a VORTAC site at approximately 6,000 feet AGL?|0.|1.3.|1.||| 4414|X|Which information is always given in an abbreviated clearance?|Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude.|SID or transition name and altitude to maintain.|Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.||| 4415|X|If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which tower function is assumed by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?|Approach control clearance.|Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.|Airport Advisory Service.||| 4416|X|Which service is provided for IFR arrivals by a FSS located on an airport without a control tower?|Airport advisories.|All functions of approach control.|Automatic closing of the IFR flight plan.||| 4417|X|What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use a SID?|Advise departure control upon initial contact.|Enter ``No SID'' in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.|Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure.||| 4418|X|A particular SID requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a groundspeed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute?|210.|490.|450.||| 4419|X|Which procedure applies to SID's?|The pilot in command must accept a SID when issued by ATC.|If a SID is accepted, the pilot must possess at least a textual description.|SID clearances will not be issued unless requested by the pilot.||| 4420|X|During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control?|Upon completing the first turn after takeoff or upon establishing cruise climb on a straight out departure.|When advised by the tower.|Before penetrating the clouds.||| 4421|X|During a flight, the controller advises ``traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound.'' The pilot is holding 20° correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic?|40° to the right of the airplane's nose.|20° to the right of the airplane's nose.|Straight ahead.||| 4422|X|What is meant when departure control instructs you to ``resume own navigation'' after you have been vectored to a Victor airway?|You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.|Radar service is terminated.|You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.||| 4423|X|What does the ATC term ``Radar Contact'' signify?|Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility.|You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.|Your aircraft has been identified on the radar display and radar flight following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.||| 4424|X|Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to ``RESUME OWN NAVIGATION.'' This phrase means that|you are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.|radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports.|you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation.||| 4425|X|Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained by a helicopter during an off airways IFR flight over nonmountainous terrain?|2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 SM of course.|1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 5 SM of course.|1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 3 NM of course.||| 4426|X|In addition to a VOR receiver and two way communications capability, which additional equipment is required for IFR operation in Class B airspace?|An operable coded transponder having Mode C capability.|Another VOR and communications receiver and a coded transponder.|Standby communications receiver, DME, and coded transponder.||| 4427|X|No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan|and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.|prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway.|and receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff.||| 4428|X|Unless otherwise prescribed, what is the rule regarding altitude and course to be maintained by a helicopter during an IFR off airways flight over mountainous terrain?|2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 4 NM of course.|1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 5 NM of course.|7,500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 3 NM of course.||| 4429|X|What is the definition of MEA?|The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle requirements, assures acceptable navigational signal coverage, two way radio communications, and provides adequate radar coverage.|The lowest published altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements and assures acceptable navigational signal coverage.|An altitude which meets obstacle clearance requirements, assures acceptable navigation signal coverage, two way radio communications, adequate radar coverage, and accurate DME mileage.||| 4430|X|What altitude may a pilot select upon receiving a VFR on Top clearance?|Any altitude at least 1,000 feet above the meteorological condition.|Any VFR altitude appropriate for the direction of flight at least 1,000 feet above the meteorological condition.|Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions.||| 4431|X|When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan?|When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR conditions.|When assigned a VFR on Top clearance.|When flying in VFR conditions above clouds.||| 4432|X|The MEA assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and|radar coverage.|DME response.|meets obstacle clearance requirements.||| 4433|X|You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR on Top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180°, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions.)|An even thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.|An odd thousand foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet.|Any IFR altitude which will enable you to remain in VFR conditions.||| 4434|X|MOAs are established to|restrict civil aircraft during periods of high density training activities.|separate certain military activities from IFR traffic.|prohibit all civil aircraft because of hazardous or secret activities.||| 4435|X|Reception of signals from an off airway radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?|MOCA.|MRA.|MCA.||| 4436|X|Which condition is guaranteed for all of the following altitude limits: MAA, MCA, MRA, MOCA, and MEA? (Non mountainous area.)|Adequate communications.|1,000 foot obstacle clearance.|Adequate navigation signals.||| 4437|X|If no MCA is specified, what is the lowest altitude for crossing a radio fix, beyond which a higher minimum applies?|The MOCA for the route segment beyond the fix.|The MEA at which the fix is approached.|The MRA at which the fix is approached.||| 4438|X|What requirement must be met before ATC will authorize a deviation from the FAR 91 requirement for a transponder in class B airspace?|The proposed flight must be conducted in visual meteorological conditions (VMC).|The proposed flight must be conducted when operating under instrument flight rules.|A request for the proposed flight must be made to ATC at least 1 hour before the flight.||| 4439|X|A request for a deviation from the 4096 code transponder equipment requirement, when operating in Class B airspace, must be submitted to the|nearest FAA General Aviation District Office 24 hours before the proposed operation.|controlling ATC facility at least 1 hour before the proposed flight.|FAA Administrator at least 24 hours before the proposed operation.||| 4440|X|Which of the following is required equipment for operating an airplane within Class B airspace?|A 4096 code transponder.|A VOR receiver with DME.|A 4096 code transponder with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment.||| 4441|X|Which procedure is recommended while climbing to an assigned altitude on the airway?|Climb on the centerline of the airway except when maneuvering to avoid other air traffic in VFR conditions.|Climb far enough to the right side of the airway to avoid climbing or descending traffic coming from the opposite direction if in VFR conditions.|Climb slightly on the right side of the airway when in VFR conditions.||| 4442|X|Which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request?|SID's, STAR's, and visual approaches.|SID's, standard terminal arrival route (STAR), and contact approaches.|Contact and visual approaches.||| 4443|X|What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads ``...CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...''?|The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC.|It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000.|The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure.||| 4444|X|What is the procedure for setting the altimeter when assigned an IFR altitude of 18,000 feet or higher on a direct flight off airways?|Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg before takeoff.|Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting until reaching the assigned altitude, then set to 29.92" Hg.|Set the altimeter to the current reported setting for climbout and 29.92" Hg upon reaching 18,000 feet.||| 4445|X|En route at FL 290, the altimeter is set correctly, but not reset to the local altimeter setting of 30.57" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 650 feet and the altimeter is functioning properly, what is the approximate indication upon landing?|Sea level.|715 feet.|1,300 feet.||| 4446|X|While you are flying at FL 250, you hear ATC give an altimeter setting of 28.92" Hg in your area. At what pressure altitude are you flying?|26,000 feet.|25,000 feet.|24,000 feet.||| 4447|X|Where are VFR on Top operations prohibited?|When flying through Class B airspace.|In Class A airspace.|During off airways direct flights.||| 4448|X|What action should you take if your DME fails at FL 240?|Notify ATC of the failure and continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.|Notify ATC that it will be necessary for you to go to a lower altitude, since your DME has failed.|Advise ATC of the failure and land at the nearest available airport where repairs can be made.||| 4449|X|Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR on Top clearance?|VFR and IFR.|VFR when ``in the clear'' and IFR when ``in the clouds.''|VFR only.||| 4450|X|When can a VFR on Top clearance be assigned by ATC?|When VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of clouds below the MEA.|Any time suitable conditions exist and ATC wishes to expedite traffic flow.|Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable.||| 4451|X|Which ATC clearance should instrument rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR?|To VFR on Top.|Special VFR to VFR Over the Top.|VFR Over the Top.||| 4452|X|When on a VFR on Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on|true course.|magnetic heading.|magnetic course.||| 4453|X|In which airspace is VFR on Top operation prohibited?| Class B airspace.| Class A airspace.| Class E airspace.||| 4454|X|What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet?|Even thousand foot levels.|Odd thousand foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.|Even thousand foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.||| 4455|X|What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a nonradar environment?|Only the reporting of any unforecast weather.|All normal IFR reports except vacating altitudes.|The same reports that are required for any IFR flight.||| 4456|X|Which report should be made to ATC without a specific request when not in radar contact?|Entering instrument meteorological conditions.|Correcting an E.T.A. any time a previous E.T.A. is in error in excess of 2 minutes.|When leaving final approach fix inbound on final approach.||| 4457|X|What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR on Top clearance?|Minimum IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected.|At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological condition.|At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or appropriate MOCA, and at least 1,000 feet above the existing meteorological condition.||| 4458|X|A ``CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET'' clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to|vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.|climb to, but not descend from 4,000 feet, without further ATC clearance.|use any altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude.||| 4459|X|What is the procedure when the DME malfunctions at or above 24,000 feet MSL?|After immediately notifying ATC, you may continue to the next airport of intended landing where repairs can be made.|Continue to your destination in VFR conditions and report the malfunction.|Notify ATC immediately and request an altitude below 24,000 feet.||| 4460|X|What action should you take if your No. 1 VOR receiver malfunctions while operating in controlled airspace under IFR? Your aircraft is equipped with two VOR receivers. The No. 1 receiver has Omni/Localizer/Glide Slope capability, and the No. 2 has only Omni.|Continue the flight as cleared; no report is required.|Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.|Continue the approach and request a VOR or NDB approach.||| 4461|X|While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken?|Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency.|Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.|Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.||| 4462|X|You enter a holding pattern at a fix, not the same as the approach fix, and receive an EFC time of 1530. At 1520 you experience complete two way communications failure. Which procedure should you follow to execute the approach to a landing?|Depart the holding fix at the EFC time, and complete the approach.|Depart the holding fix at the EFC time or earlier if your flight planned ETA is before the EFC.|Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time and complete the approach.||| 4463|X|Which procedure should you follow if you experience two way communications failure while holding at a holding fix with an EFC time? (The holding fix is not the same as the approach fix.)|Depart the holding fix to arrive at the approach fix as close as possible to the EFC time.|Proceed immediately to the approach fix and hold until EFC.|Depart the holding fix at the EFC time.||| 4464|X|You are in IMC and have two way radio communications failure. If you do not exercise emergency authority, what procedure are you expected to follow?|Set transponder to code 7700 for 1 minute, then to 7600, and fly to an area with VFR weather conditions.|Set transponder to 7700 and fly to an area where you can let down in VFR conditions.|Set transponder to code 7600, continue flight on assigned route and fly at the last assigned altitude or the MEA, whichever is higher.||| 4465|X|Which procedure should you follow if, during an IFR flight in VFR conditions, you have two way radio communications failure?|Land at the nearest airport that has VFR conditions.|Continue the flight at assigned altitude and route, start approach at your ETA, or, if late, start approach upon arrival.|Continue the flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable.||| 4466|X|What altitude and route should be used if you are flying in IMC and have two way radio communications failure?|Continue on the route specified in your clearance, fly at an altitude that is the highest of last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed you to expect, or the MEA.|Fly direct to an area that has been forecast to have VFR conditions, fly at an altitude that is at least 1,000 feet above the highest obstacles along the route.|Descend to MEA and, if clear of clouds, proceed to the nearest appropriate airport. If not clear of clouds, maintain the highest of the MEA's along the clearance route.||| 4467|X|AIRMET's are issued on a scheduled basis every|six hours.|15 minutes until the AIRMET is canceled.|15 minutes after the hour only.||| 4468|X|Pilots on IFR flights seeking ATC in flight weather avoidance assistance should keep in mind that|circumnavigating severe weather can only be accommodated in the en route areas away from terminals because of congestion.|ATC radar limitations and, frequency congestion may limit the controllers capability to provide this service.|ATC Narrow Band Radar does not provide the controller with weather intensity capability.||| 4469|X|When are you required to establish communications with the tower, (Class D airspace) if you cancel your IFR flight plan 10 miles from the destination?|Before entering Class D airspace.|When advised by ARTCC.|Immediately after canceling the flight plan.||| 4470|X|What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?|Instrument takeoffs are not authorized.|Takeoff minimums are 1 mile for aircraft having two engines or less and 1/2 mile for those with more than two engines.|Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published.||| 4471|X|What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions?|Use VFR operating procedures.|To see and avoid other traffic.|Report VFR conditions to ARTCC so that an amended clearance may be issued.||| 4472|X|As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate?|One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.|No specific distance is specified since the reception is line of sight.|Two miles or more for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.||| 4473|X|Which airspace is defined as a transition area when designated in conjunction with an airport which has a prescribed IAP?|That Class D airspace extending from the surface and terminating at the base of the continental control area.|The Class E airspace extending upward from 700 feet or more above the surface and terminating at the base of the overlying controlled airspace.|The Class C airspace extending from the surface to 700 or 1,200 feet AGL, where designated.||| 4474|X|The vertical extent of the Class A airspace throughout the conterminous U.S. extends from|18,000 feet to and including FL 600.|12,500 feet to and including FL 600.|18,000 feet to and including FL 450.||| 4475|X|Class G airspace is that airspace where |ATC does not control air traffic.|ATC controls only IFR flights.|the minimum visibility for VFR flight is 3 miles.||| 4476|X|What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?|1,200 feet AGL to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.|Surface to 700 feet AGL.|700 feet AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.||| 4477|X|How can you obtain the pressure altitude on flights below 18,000 feet?|Set your altimeter to 29.92" Hg.|Contact an FSS and ask for the pressure altitude.|Use your computer to change the indicated altitude to pressure altitude.||| 4478|X|How can you determine the pressure altitude at an airport without a tower or FSS?|Set the altimeter to 29.92" Hg and read the altitude indicated.|Use your computer and correct the field elevation for temperature.|Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting of a station within 100 miles and correct this indicated altitude with local temperature.||| 4479|X|Which altitude is indicated when the altimeter is set to 29.92" Hg ?|Standard.|Pressure.|Density.||| 4480|X|If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, you should set your altimeter|to the airport elevation.|on 29.92" Hg.|on the current airport barometric pressure, if known.||| 4481|X|En route at FL 290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26" Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?|206 feet below MSL.|474 feet MSL.|100 feet MSL.||| 4482|X|How does a pilot normally obtain the current altimeter setting during an IFR flight in Class E airspace below 18,000 feet?|FSS's along the route broadcast the weather information at 15 minutes past the hour.|ATC periodically advises the pilot of the proper altimeter setting.|The pilot should contact ARTCC at least every 100 NM and request the altimeter setting.||| 4483|X|(Refer to figure 83.) Which altimeter depicts 12,000 feet? |4.|3.|2.||| 4484|X|(Refer to figure 84.) Which altimeter depicts 8,000 feet?|1.|3.|2.||| 4485|X|Unless otherwise specified on the chart, the minimum en route altitude along a jet route is|10,000 feet MSL.|18,000 feet MSL.|24,000 feet MSL.||| 4486|X|An abbreviated departure clearance ``...CLEARED AS FILED...'' will always contain the name|of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment.|and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan.|of the destination airport filed in the flight plan.||| 4487|X|As a rule of thumb, to minimize DME slant range error, how far from the facility should you be to consider the reading as accurate?|One or more miles for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.|Two miles or more for each 1,000 feet of altitude above the facility.|No specific distance is specified since the reception is line of sight.||| 4488|X|(Refer to figures 85 and 86.) Which combination of indications confirm that you are approaching WAGGE intersection slightly to the right of the LOC centerline on departure?|2 and 3.|1 and 3.|1 and 4.||| 4489|X|(Refer to figure 85.) What route should you take if cleared for the Washoe Two Departure and your assigned route is V6?|Climb on the LOC south course to WAGGE, turn left and fly direct to FMG VORTAC. If at 10,000 turn left and proceed on FMG R 241; if not at 10,000 enter depicted holding pattern and climb to 10,000 before proceeding on FMG R 241.|Climb on the LOC south course to cross WAGGE at 9,000, turn left and fly direct to FMG VORTAC and cross at or above 10,000, and proceed on FMG R 241.|Climb on the LOC south course to WAGGE where you will be vectored to V6.||| 4490|X|(Refer to figure 85.) What procedure should be followed if communications are lost before reaching 9,000 feet?|Continue climb on LOC course to cross WAGGE INT at or above 9,000, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC to cross at 10,000 or above, and continue on assigned course.|At 9,000, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC, then via assigned route if at proper altitude; if not, climb in holding pattern until reaching the proper altitude.|Continue climb to WAGGE INT, turn left direct to FMG VORTAC, then if at or above MCA, proceed on assigned route; if not, continue climb in holding pattern until at the proper altitude.||| 4491|X|(Refer to figure 85.) What is the minimum rate climb per NM to 9,000 feet required for the WASH2 WAGGE Departure? |875 feet.|750 feet.|400 feet.||| 4492|X|(Refer to figure 85.) Of the following, which is the minimum acceptable rate of climb (feet per minute) to 9,000 feet required for the WASH2 WAGGE departure at a GS of 150 knots? |825 feet per minute.|1,000 feet per minute.|750 feet per minute.||| 4493|X|(Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOR COP when flying east on V306 from Daisetta to Lake Charles?|30 NM east of DAS.|40 NM east of DAS.|50 NM east of DAS.||| 4494|X|(Refer to figure 87.) At STRUT intersection headed eastbound, ATC instructs you to hold west on the 10 DME fix west of LCH on V306, standard turns, what entry procedure is recommended?|Direct.|Teardrop.|Parallel.||| 4495|X|(Refer to figures 87 and 88.) What is your position with reference to FALSE intersection (V222) if your VOR receivers indicate as shown?|South of V222 and east of FALSE intersection.|South of V222 and west of FALSE intersection.|North of V222 and east of FALSE intersection.||| 4496|X|(Refer to figure 87.) What is indicated by the localizer course symbol at Jefferson Co Field?|A published LDA localizer course is available.|A published ILS localizer course with an ATC function is available.|A published SDF localizer course is avialable.||| 4497|X|(Refer to figure 87.) Which VHF frequencies, other than 121.5, can be used to receive De Ridder FSS in the Lake Charles area?|123.6, 122.65.|122.1, 126.4.|122.2, 122.3.||| 4498|X|(Refer to figure 87.) Why is the localizer back course at Jefferson County depicted?|The back course is not aligned with a runway.|The back course has a glide slope.|The back course has an ATC function.||| 4499|X|(Refer to figure 87.) Where is the VOR changeover point on V20 between Beaumont and Hobby?|Anahuac Beacon.|MOCKS intersection.|Halfway point.||| 4500|X|(Refer to figure 87.) While holding at the 10 DME fix east of LCH for an ILS approach to RWY 15 at Lake Charles Muni airport, ATC advises you to expect clearance for the approach at 1015. At 1000 you experience two way radio communications failure. Which procedure should be followed?|Squawk 7600 and listen on the LOM frequency for instructions from ATC. If no instructions are received, start your approach at 1015.|Squawk 7600; plan to begin your approach at 1015.|Squawk 7700 for 1 minute, then 7600. After 1 minute, descend to the minimum final approach fix altitude. Start your approach at 1015.||| 4501|X|(Refer to figure 89.) When flying from Milford Municipal to Bryce Canyon via V235 and V293, what minimum altitude should you be at when crossing Cedar City VOR?|13,000 feet.|12,000 feet.|11,400 feet.||| 4502|X|(Refer to figure 89.) What VHF frequencies are available for communications with Cedar City FSS ?|122.2, 121.5, 122.0, and 123.6.|123.6, 121.5, 108.6, and 112.8.|122.2, 121.5, 122.6, and 112.1.||| 4503|X|(Refer to figure 89.) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight northeast bound from Bryce Canyon on V382 at the lowest appropriate altitude in an unpressurized aircraft?|The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen, and all occupants must be provided supplemental oxygen for the entire flight above 15,000 feet.|The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes.|The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes, and the passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen.||| 4504|X|On what frequency should you obtain En Route Flight Advisory Service below FL 180?|123.6.|122.1T/112.8R.|122.0.||| 4505|X|In the event of two way radio communications failure while operating on an IFR clearance in VFR conditions the pilot should continue|the flight under VFR and land as soon as practical.|the flight by the most direct route to the fix specified in the last clearance.|by the route assigned in the last ATC clearance received.||| 4506|X|(Refer to figure 89.) What is the ARTCC discrete frequency at the COP on V208 southwest bound from HVE to PGA VOR/DME?|122.1.|122.4.|133.6.||| 4507|X|(Refer to figures 89 and 90.) What is your relationship to the airway while en route from BCE VORTAC to HVE VORTAC on V8?|Left of course on V8.|Left of course on V382.|Right of course on V8.||| 4508|X|(Refer to figure 89.) What type airspace exists above Bryce Canyon Airport from the surface to 1200 feet AGL?|Class D airspace.|Class E airspace.|Class G airspace.||| 4509|X|(Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum crossing altitude at DBS VORTAC for a northbound IFR flight on V257?|11,100 feet.|8,600 feet.|7,500 feet.||| 4510|X|(Refer to figure 91.) What are the two limiting cruising altitudes useable on V343 for a VFR-on-Top flight from DBS VORTAC to RANEY intersection? |14,500 and 16,500 feet.|15,000 and 17,000 feet.|15,500 and 17,500 feet.||| 4511|X|(Refer to figure 91.) What should be the approximate elapsed time from BZN VOR to DBS VORTAC, if the wind is 24 knots from 260° and your intended TAS is 185 knots? (VAR 17 °E.) |39 minutes.|37 minutes.|33 minutes.||| 4512|X|(Refer to figure 91.) What lighting is indicated on the chart for Jackson Hole Airport? |No lighting available.|Lights on prior request.|Pilot controlled lighting.||| 4513|X|(Refer to figure 91.) What are the oxygen requirements for an IFR flight eastbound on V520 from DBS VORTAC in an unpressurized aircraft at the MEA?|The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes.|The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight of more than 30 minutes, and the passengers must be provided supplemental oxygen.|The required minimum crew must be provided and use supplemental oxygen.||| 4514|X|(Refer to figure 91.) Southbound on V257, at what time should you arrive at DBS VORTAC if you crossed over CPN VORTAC at 0850 and over DIVID intersection at 0854?|0943.|0947.|0939.||| 4515|X|(Refer to figure 91.) What is the function of the Great Falls RCO (Yellowstone vicinity)?|Satellite remote controlled by Salt Lake Center with limited service.|Remote communications outlet for Great Falls FSS.|Long range communications outlet for Great Falls Center.||| 4516|X|(Refer to figure 91.) Where should you change VOR frequencies when en route from DBS VORTAC to JAC VOR/DME on V520?|60 NM from JAC VOR/DME.|35 NM from DBS VORTAC.|60 NM from DBS VORTAC.||| 4517|X|(Refer to figure 91.) What is the minimum crossing altitude at SABAT intersection when eastbound from DBS VORTAC on V298?|11,100 feet.|8,300 feet.|13,000 feet.||| 4518|X|What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet with a VFR on Top clearance during daylight hours? (Class E airspace.)|5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.|5 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.|3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.||| 4519|X|What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet MSL with a VFR on Top clearance during daylight hours?|3 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.|5 SM, 500 feet above, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.|3 SM, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.||| 4520|X|(Refer to figure 92.) What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR on Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for area 3?|3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.|5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.|2,000 feet; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.||| 4521|X|(Refer to figure 92.) A flight is to be conducted in VFR on Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (above 1200 feet AGL). What is the in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation in Class E airspace during daylight hours for area 1?|3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 2,000 feet; (D) 1,000 feet.|5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.|5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 2,000 feet; (D) 500 feet.||| 4522|X|(Refer to figure 92.) What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace during daylight hours for area 2?|5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.|5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 2,000 feet; (D) 500 feet.|3 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.||| 4523|X|(Refer to figure 92.) What in flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in Class G airspace in VFR conditions during daylight hours in area 4?|5 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 1 mile; (H) 1,000 feet.|1 mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.|3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.||| 4524|X|(Refer to figure 92.) What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in area 6?|3 miles; (I) 1,000 feet; (K) 2,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.|1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (K) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.|1 mile; (I) 500 feet; (K) 1,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.||| 4525|X|(Refer to figure 92.) What is the minimum in flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours in area 5?|1 mile; (I) 2,000 feet; (J) 2,000 feet; (L) 500 feet.|1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.|3 miles; (I) clear of clouds; (J) clear of clouds; (L) 500 feet.||| 4526|X|(Refer to figure 93.) What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airway?|1,500 feet AGL.|700 feet AGL.|1,200 feet AGL.||| 4527|X|(Refer to figure 93.) Which altitude is the normal upper limit for Class D airspace?|1,000 feet AGL.|4,000 feet AGL.|2,500 feet AGL.||| 4528|X|(Refer to figure 93.) What is the floor of Class E airspace when designated in conjunction with an airport which has an approved IAP?|700 feet AGL.|500 feet AGL.|1,200 feet AGL.||| 4529|X|(Refer to figure 93.) Which altitude is the upper limit for Class A airspace?|14,500 feet MSL.|18,000 feet MSL.|60,000 feet MSL.||| 4530|X|(Refer to figure 93.) What is the maximum altitude that Class G airspace will exist? (Does not include airspace less than 1,500 feet AGL.)|18,000 feet MSL.|14,000 feet MSL.|14,500 feet MSL.||| 4531|X|(Refer to figure 93.) What is generally the maximum altitude for Class B airspace?|10,000 feet MSL.|14,500 feet MSL.|4,000 feet MSL.||| 4532|X|(Refer to figure 93.) What are the normal lateral limits for Class D airspace?|4 NM.|5 NM.|8 NM.||| 4533|X|(Refer to figure 93.) What is the floor of Class A airspace?|18,000 feet MSL.|10,000 feet MSL.|14,500 feet MSL.||| 4534|X|(Refer to figure 94.) Mandatory airport instruction signs are designated by having.|Black lettering with a yellow background.|White lettering with a red background.|Yellow lettering with a black background.||| 4535|X|(Refer to figure 94.) What sign is designated by illustration 7?|Mandatory instruction sign.|Direction sign.|Location sign.||| 4536|X|(Refer to figure 94.) What color are runway holding position signs?|White with a red background.|Red with a white background.|Yellow with a black background.||| 4537|X|(Refer to figure 94.) Hold line markings at the intersection of taxiways and runways consist of four lines that extend across the width of the taxiway. These lines are-|white and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.|yellow and the solid lines are nearest the runway.|yellow and the dashed lines are nearest the runway.||| 4538|X|When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?|When visibility is less than 1 mile.|When departing from a runway intersection.|When parallel runways are in use.||| 4539|X|What minimum aircraft equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?|Two way communications and Mode C transponder.|Transponder and DME.|Two way communications.||| 4540|X|What obstacle clearance and navigation signal coverage is a pilot assured with the Minimum Sector Altitudes depicted on the IAP charts?|500 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 10 NM radius of the navigation facility.|1,000 feet within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility but not acceptable navigation signal coverage.|1,000 feet and acceptable navigation signal coverage within a 25 NM radius of the navigation facility.||| 4541|X|In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area where no other minimum altitude is prescribed, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below an altitude of|500 feet above the highest obstacle.|2,000 feet above the highest obstacle.|1,000 feet above the highest obstacle.||| 4542|X|MEA is an altitude which assures|acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstruction clearance requirements.|a 1,000 foot obstacle clearance within 2 miles of an airway and assures accurate DME mileage.|obstacle clearance, accurate navigational signals from more than one VORTAC, and accurate DME mileage.||| 4543|X|If, while in Class E airspace, a clearance is received to ``maintain VFR conditions on top,'' the pilot should maintain a VFR cruising altitude based on the direction of the|magnetic course.|true course.|magnetic heading.||| 4544|X|Reception of signals from a radio facility, located off the airway being flown, may be inadequate at the designated MEA to identify the fix. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?|MCA.|MOCA.|MRA.||| 4545|X|ATC may assign the MOCA when certain special conditions exist, and when within|22 NM of a VOR.|30 NM of a VOR.|25 NM of a VOR.||| 4546|X|Which aeronautical chart depicts Military Training Routes (MTR) above 1500 feet?|IFR Low Altitude En Route Chart.|IFR Planning Chart.|IFR High Altitude En Route Chart.||| 4547|X|Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only|22 NM.|25 NM.|12 NM.||| 4548|X|What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a full scale deflection of the CDI?|4°.|5°|10°.||| 4549|X|When using VOR for navigation, which of the following should be considered as station passage?|The first movement of the CDI as the airplane enters the zone of confusion.|The moment the TO FROM indicator becomes blank.|The first positive, complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator.||| 4550|X|Which of the following should be considered as station passage when using VOR?|The first complete reversal of the TO FROM indicator.|The first flickering of the TO FROM indicator and CDI as the station is approached.|The first full scale deflection of the CDI.||| 4551|X|When checking the sensitivity of a VOR receiver, the number of degrees in course change as the OBS is rotated to move the CDI from center to the last dot on either side should be between|5° and 6°.|8° and 10°.|10° and 12°.||| 4552|X|A VOR receiver with normal five-dot course sensitivity shows a three-dot deflection at 30 NM from the station. The aircraft would be displaced approximately how far from the course centerline?|3 NM.|2 NM.|5 NM.||| 4553|X|An aircraft which is located 30 miles from a VOR station and shows a 1/2 scale deflection on the CDI would be how far from the selected course centerline?|3 1/2 miles.|2 1/2 miles.|1 1/2 miles.||| 4554|X|What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by a 1/2 scale deflection of the CDI?|4°.|2°.|5°.||| 4555|X|To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used?|1,000 feet per minute during climb and 500 feet per minute during descents until reaching the assigned altitude.|As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude.|As rapidly as practicable to 500 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then at 500 feet per minute until the assigned altitude is reached.||| 4556|X|After passing a VORTAC, the CDI shows 1/2 scale deflection to the right. What is indicated if the deflection remains constant for a period of time?|The OBS is erroneously set on the reciprocal heading.|The airplane is flying away from the radial.|The airplane is getting closer to the radial.||| 4557|X|(Refer to figure 95.) What is the lateral displacement of the aircraft in NM from the radial selected on the No. 1 NAV?|7.5 NM.|10.0 NM.|5.0 NM.||| 4558|X|(Refer to figure 95.) On which radial is the aircraft as indicated by the No. 1 NAV?|R 175.|R 165.|R 345.||| 4559|X|(Refer to figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 1 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?|165°.|175°.|345°.||| 4560|X|(Refer to figure 95.) What is the lateral displacement in degrees from the desired radial on the No. 2 NAV?|2°.|1°.|4°.||| 4561|X|(Refer to figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI?|166°.|335°.|174°.||| 4562|X|(Refer to figure 95.) Which OBS selection on the No. 2 NAV would center the CDI and change the ambiguity indication to a TO?|346°.|166°.|354°.||| 4563|X|(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation ``A'' correspond?|9 only.|6 only.|9 and 6.||| 4564|X|(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation ``B'' correspond?|7 and 11.|11.|5 and 13.||| 4565|X|(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``C'' correspond?|4.|12.|9.||| 4566|X|(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``D'' correspond?|1.|10.|2.||| 4567|X|(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation ``E'' correspond?|8 only.|3 only.|8 and 3.||| 4568|X|(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``F'' correspond? |5.|4.|11.||| 4569|X|(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position(s) does HSI presentation ``G'' correspond?|5 and 13.|7 only.|7 and 11.||| 4570|X|(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``H'' correspond?|1.|2.|8.||| 4571|X|(Refer to figures 96 and 97.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``I'' correspond?|12.|4.|11.||| 4572|X|(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``D'' correspond? |17.|4.|15.||| 4573|X|(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``E'' correspond? |15.|5.|6.||| 4574|X|(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``F'' correspond? |10.|14.|16.||| 4575|X|(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``A'' correspond?|8.|11.|1.||| 4576|X|(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``B'' correspond?|13.|19.|9.||| 4577|X|(Refer to figures 98 and 99.) To which aircraft position does HSI presentation ``C'' correspond?|12.|7.|6.||| 4578|X|(Refer to figure 101.) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station?|060°.|260°.|270°.||| 4579|X|(Refer to figure 100.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft to be flying outbound on the magnetic bearing of 235° FROM the station? (Wind 050° at 20 knots.)|2.|4.|3.||| 4580|X|(Refer to figure 100.) What is the magnetic bearing TO the station as indicated by illustration 4?|285°.|235°.|055°.||| 4581|X|(Refer to figure 100.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is southwest of the station and moving closer TO the station?|1.|3.|2.||| 4582|X|(Refer to figure 100.) Which RMI illustration indicates the aircraft is located on the 055° radial of the station and heading away from the station?|3.|2.|1.||| 4583|X|(Refer to instruments in figure 102.) On the basis of this information, the magnetic bearing TO the station would be|175°.|355°.|255°.||| 4584|X|(Refer to instruments in figure 102.) On the basis of this information, the magnetic bearing FROM the station would be|355°.|255°.|175°.||| 4585|X|(Refer to instruments in figure 103.) On the basis of this information, the magnetic bearing FROM the station would be|240°.|060°.|030°.||| 4586|X|(Refer to instruments in figure 103.) On the basis of this information, the magnetic bearing TO the station would be|060°.|270°.|240°.||| 4587|X|(Refer to figure 104.) If the radio magnetic indicator is tuned to a VOR, which illustration indicates the aircraft is on the 115° radial?|2.|3.|1.||| 4588|X|(Refer to figure 104.) If the radio magnetic indicator is tuned to a VOR, which illustration indicates the aircraft is on the 335° radial?|3.|4.|2.||| 4589|X|(Refer to figure 104.) If the radio magnetic indicator is tuned to a VOR, which illustration indicates the aircraft is on the 315° radial?|4.|3.|2.||| 4590|X|(Refer to figure 104.) If the radio magnetic indicator is tuned to a VOR, which illustration indicates the aircraft is on the 010° radial?|3.|1.|2.||| 4591|X|(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for airplane 7 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the airplane is on the 120° magnetic bearing FROM the station?|5.|2.|4.||| 4592|X|(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for airplane 5 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the airplane is on the 210° magnetic bearing FROM the station?|4.|2.|3.||| 4593|X|(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for airplane 3 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the airplane is on the 120° magnetic bearing TO the station?|8.|4.|5.||| 4594|X|(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for airplane 1 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the airplane is on the 060° magnetic bearing TO the station?|5.|4.|2.||| 4595|X|(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for airplane 2 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the airplane is on the 255° magnetic bearing TO the station?|2.|4.|5.||| 4596|X|(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for airplane 4 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the airplane is on the 135° magnetic bearing TO the station?|8.|4.|1.||| 4597|X|(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for airplane 6 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the airplane is on the 255° magnetic bearing FROM the station?|4.|2.|5.||| 4598|X|(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for airplane 8 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the airplane is on the 090° magnetic bearing FROM the station?|6.|4.|3.||| 4599|X|(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for airplane 5 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the airplane is on the 240° magnetic bearing TO the station?|3.|2.|4.||| 4600|X|(Refer to figure 105.) If the magnetic heading shown for airplane 8 is maintained, which ADF illustration would indicate the airplane is on the 315° magnetic bearing TO the station?|4.|1.|3.||| 4601|X|(Refer to figure 106.) The course selector of each aircraft is set on 360°. Which aircraft would have a FROM indication on the ambiguity meter and the CDI pointing left of center?|2.|3.|1.||| 4602|X|(Refer to figure 107.) Where should the bearing pointer be located relative to the wingtip reference to maintain the 16 DME range in a right hand arc with a right crosswind component? |Ahead of the right wingtip reference for VOR 2.|Behind the right wingtip reference for VOR 2.|Behind the right wingtip reference for VOR 1.||| 4603|X|(Refer to figure 108.) Where should the bearing pointer be located relative to the wingtip reference to maintain the 16 DME range in a left hand arc with a left crosswind component? |Ahead of the left wingtip reference for the VOR 2.|Behind the left wingtip reference for the VOR 2.|Ahead of the right wingtip reference for the VOR 1.||| 4604|X|Determine the approximate time and distance to a station if a 5° wingtip bearing change occurs in 1.5 minutes with a true airspeed of 95 knots.|16 minutes and 14.3 NM.|18 minutes and 33.0 NM.|18 minutes and 28.5 NM.||| 4605|X|During the en route phase of an IFR flight, the pilot is advised ``Radar service terminated.'' What action is appropriate?|Resume normal position reporting.|Activate the IDENT feature of the transponder to re establish radar contact.|Set transponder to code 1200.||| 4606|X|(Refer to figure 109.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located? |Southeast.|Northeast.|Southwest.||| 4607|X|(Refer to figure 110.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located? |Northwest.|Southwest.|Northeast.||| 4608|X|(Refer to figure 111.) In which general direction from the VORTAC is the aircraft located? |Northwest.|Southeast.|Northeast.||| 4609|X|(Refer to figure 112.) You arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure?\n''...HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS...''|1; teardrop entry.|2; direct entry.|1; direct entry.||| 4610|X|(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:\n''...HOLD EAST OF THE ABC VORTAC ON THE ZERO NINER ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...''\nWhat is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?|Parallel only.|Direct only.|Teardrop only.||| 4611|X|(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:\n''...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL...''\nWhat is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?|Teardrop only.|Parallel only.|Direct only.||| 4612|X|(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:\n''...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...''\nWhat is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern.|Teardrop only.|Direct only.|Parallel only.||| 4613|X|(Refer to figure 113.) You receive this ATC clearance:\n''...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...''\nWhat is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?|Direct only.|Teardrop only.|Parallel only.||| 4614|X|(Refer to figure 114.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance:\n''...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD WEST ON THE TWO SEVEN ZERO RADIAL...''\nWhat is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?|Parallel only.|Direct only.|Parallel or teardrop.||| 4615|X|(Refer to figure 114.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance:\n''...CLEARED TO THE XYZ VORTAC. HOLD NORTH ON THE THREE SIX ZERO RADIAL, LEFT TURNS...''\nWhat is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?|Parallel only.|Teardrop only.|Direct only.||| 4616|X|(Refer to figure 114.) A pilot receives this ATC clearance:\n''...CLEARED TO THE ABC VORTAC. HOLD SOUTH ON THE ONE EIGHT ZERO RADIAL...''\nWhat is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?|Teardrop only.|Direct only.|Parallel only.||| 4617|X|To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000 feet for civil turbojet aircraft?|200 knots.|265 knots.|230 knots.||| 4618|X|(Refer to figure 115.) You receive this ATC clearance:\n''HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE ZERO NINE ZERO RADIAL OF ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS...''\nYou arrive at the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with these instructions, and what is the recommended entry procedure?|1; teardrop.|2; direct.|1; direct.||| 4619|X|(Refer to figure 116.) You arrive over the 15 DME fix on a heading of 350°. Which holding pattern correctly complies with the ATC clearance below, and what is the recommended entry procedure?\n''...HOLD WEST OF THE ONE FIVE DME FIX ON THE TWO SIX EIGHT RADIAL OF THE ABC VORTAC, FIVE MILE LEGS, LEFT TURNS...''|1; teardrop entry.|2; direct entry.|1; direct entry.||| 4620|X|At what point should the timing begin for the first leg outbound in a nonstandard holding pattern?|Abeam the holding fix, or wings level, whichever occurs last.|When the wings are level at the completion of the 180° turn outbound.|When abeam the holding fix.||| 4621|X|(Refer to figure 117.) You receive this ATC clearance:\n''...CLEARED TO THE ABC NDB. HOLD SOUTHEAST ON THE ONE FOUR ZERO DEGREE BEARING FROM THE NDB. LEFT TURNS...''\nAt station passage you note the indications in figure 117. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?|Teardrop only.|Parallel only|Direct only.||| 4622|X|(Refer to figure 117.) You receive this ATC clearance:\n''...CLEARED TO THE XYZ NDB. HOLD NORTHEAST ON THE ZERO FOUR ZERO DEGREE BEARING FROM THE NDB. LEFT TURNS...''\nAt station passage you note the indications in figure 117. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?|Teardrop only.|Direct only.|Parallel only.||| 4623|X|(Refer to figure 117.) You receive this ATC clearance:\n''...CLEARED TO THE ABC NDB. HOLD SOUTHWEST ON THE TWO THREE ZERO DEGREE BEARING FROM THE NDB...''\nAt station passage you note the indications in figure 117. What is the recommended procedure to enter the holding pattern?|Direct only.|Teardrop only.|Parallel only.||| 4624|X|What timing procedure should be used when performing a holding pattern at a VOR?|Timing for the inbound leg begins when initiating the turn inbound.|Timing for the outbound leg begins over or abeam the VOR, whichever occurs later.|Adjustments in timing of each pattern should be made on the inbound leg.||| 4625|X|When holding at an NDB, at what point should the timing begin for the second leg outbound?|When abeam the holding fix.|When the wings are level and the wind drift correction angle is established after completing the turn to the outbound heading.|When the wings are level after completing the turn to the outbound heading, or abeam the fix, whichever occurs first.||| 4627|X|If only one missed approach procedure is available, which of the following conditions is required when conducting ``timed approaches from a holding fix''?|The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed straight in MDA minimums for the IAP.|The reported ceiling and visibility minimums must be equal to or greater than the highest prescribed circling minimums for the IAP.|The pilot must contact the airport control tower prior to departing the holding fix inbound.||| 4628|X|Prior to conducting ``timed approaches from a holding fix,'' which one of the following is required?|The airport where the approach is to be conducted must have a control tower in operation.|The time required to fly from the primary facility to the field boundary must be determined by a reliable means.|The pilot must have established two way communications with the tower before departing the holding fix.||| 4629|X|When making a ``timed approach'' from a holding fix at the outer marker, the pilot should adjust the|holding pattern to leave the final approach fix inbound at the assigned time.|holding pattern to start the procedure turn at the assigned time.|airspeed at the final approach fix in order to arrive at the missed approach point at the assigned time.||| 4630|X|If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at that airport should be the|alternate minimums shown on the approach chart.|minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of ``IFR Alternate Minimums.''|minimums specified for the approach procedure selected.||| 4631|X|If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to|make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course.|climb to the published circling minimums then proceed direct to the final approach fix.|execute a climbing turn to parallel the published final approach course and climb to the initial approach altitude.||| 4632|X|When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should not be greater than|250 knots IAS.|180 knots IAS.|200 knots IAS.||| 4633|X|Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issue a VFR restriction to an IFR flight?|When it is necessary to provide separation between IFR and special VFR traffic.|Whenever the pilot reports the loss of any navigational aid.|When the pilot requests it.||| 4634|X|What is expected of you as pilot on an IFR flight plan if you are descending or climbing in VFR conditions?|Advise ATC you are in visual conditions and will remain a short distance to the right of the centerline while climbing.|Execute gentle banks, left and right, at a frequency which permits continuous visual scanning of the airspace about you.|If on an airway, climb or descend to the right of the centerline.||| 4635|X|(Refer to figure 118.) During the ILS RWY 12L procedure at DSM, what altitude minimum applies if the glide slope becomes inoperative?|1,121 feet.|1,420 feet.|1,360 feet.||| 4636|X|What does the absence of the procedure turn barb on the planview on an approach chart indicate?|A procedure turn is not authorized.|Teardrop-type procedure turn is authorized.|Racetrack-type procedure turn is authorized.||| 4637|X|When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?|Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800 2).|The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport.|The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.||| 4638|X|Which is true regarding the use of a SID chart?|To use a SID, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved standard departure.|To use a SID, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure.|At airfields where SID's have been established, SID usage is mandatory for IFR departures.||| 4639|X|For airship IFR operations off established airways, the ``route of flight'' portion of an IFR flight plan should list VOR navigational aids which are no more than|40 NM apart.|70 NM apart.|80 NM apart.||| 4640|X|Which is true regarding STAR's?|STAR's are established to simplify clearance delivery procedures.|STAR's are used to separate IFR and VFR traffic.|STAR's are used at certain airports to decrease traffic congestion.||| 4641|X|While being radar vectored, an approach clearance is received. The last assigned altitude should be maintained until|established on a segment of a published route or IAP.|reaching the FAF.|advised to begin descent.||| 4642|X|Refer to figure 119.) The final approach fix for the precision approach is located at|Glide slope intercept (lightning bolt).|DENAY intersection.|ROMEN intersection/locator outer marker.||| 4643|X|When operating an airship under IFR with a VFR-On-Top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?|The last IFR altitude assigned by ATC.|A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC.|An IFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown.||| 4644|X|Does the ATC term ``cleared to cruise'' apply to airship IFR operations?|Yes, in part, it authorizes the pilot to commence the approach at the destination airport at pilot's discretion.|No, this term applies to airplane IFR operations only.|Yes, it means that any assigned altitude can be vacated without notifying ATC.||| 4645|X|(Refer to figure 47.) En route on V112 from BTG VORTAC to LTJ VORTAC, the minimum altitude crossing Gymme intersection is|6,400 feet.|6,500 feet.|7,000 feet.||| 4646|X|Refer to figure 47.) When en route on V448 from YKM VORTAC to BTG VORTAC, what minimum navigation equipment is required to identify ANGOO intersection?|Two VOR receivers.|One VOR receiver.|One VOR receiver and DME.||| 4647|X|Refer to figure 47.) En route on V468 from BTG VORTAC to YKM VORTAC, the minimum altitude at TROTS intersection is|7,100 feet.|10,000 feet.|11,500 feet.||| 4648|X|Refer to figure 120.) Refer to the DEN ILS RWY 35R procedure. The FAF intercept altitude is|7,488 feet MSL.|7,500 feet MSL.|9,000 feet MSL.||| 4649|X|(Refer to figure 120.) The symbol on the planview of the ILS RWY 35R procedure at DEN represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of|Denver VORTAC.|Denver/Stapleton International Airport.|Gandi outer marker.||| 4650|X|Refer to figure 121.) During the ILS RWY 30R procedure at DSM, the minimum altitude for glide slope interception is|3,000 feet MSL.|2,500 feet MSL.|2,365 feet MSL.||| 4651|X|(Refer to figure 121.) During the ILS RWY 30R procedure at DSM, what MDA applies should the glide slope become inoperative?|1,157 feet.|1,360 feet.|1,320 feet.||| 4652|X|(Refer to figure 122.) The missed approach point of the ATL S-LOC 8L procedure is located how far from the LOM?|5.1 NM.|4.8 NM.|5.2 NM.||| 4653|X|Refer to figure 123.) What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?|One VOR receiver and DME.|One VOR receiver.|Two VOR receivers and DME.||| 4654|X|(Refer to figure 123.) The symbol on the planview of the VOR/DME-A procedure at 7D3 represents a minimum safe sector altitude within 25 NM of|White Cloud VORTAC.|Baldwin Municipal Airport.|DEANI intersection.||| 4655|X|(Refer to figure 124 or 124A.) What options are available concerning the teardrop course reversal for LOC RWY 35 approach to Duncan/Halliburton Field?|If a course reversal is required, only the teardrop can be executed.|The point where the turn is begun and the type and rate of turn are optional.|A normal procedure turn may be made if the 10 DME limit is not exceeded.||| 4656|X|(Refer to figure 124 or 124A.) The point on the teardrop procedure where the turn inbound (LOC RWY 35) Duncan/Halliburton, is initiated is determined by|DME and timing to remain within the 10-NM limit.|Timing for a 2 minute maximum.|Estimating groundspeed and radius of turn.||| 4657|X|(Refer to figure 125 or 125A.) If your aircraft was cleared for the ILS RWY 17R at Lincoln Municipal and crossed the Lincoln VOR at 5,000 feet MSL, at what point in the teardrop could a descent to 3,000 feet commence?|Immediately.|Only at the point authorized by ATC.|As soon as intercepting LOC inbound.||| 4658|X|(Refer to figure 125 or 125A.) If cleared for an S-LOC 17R approach at Lincoln Municipal from over TOUHY, it means the flight should |comply with straight-in landing minimums.|land straight in on runway 17R.|begin final approach without making a procedure turn.||| 4659|X|(Refer to figure 126 or 126A.) What landing minimums apply for a FAR part 91 operator at Dothan, AL using a category C aircraft during a circling LOC 31 approach at 120 knots? (DME available).|MDA 860 feet MSL and visibility 2 SM.|MDA 860 feet MSL and visibility 1 and 1/2 SM.|MDA 720 feet MSL and visibility 3/4 SM.||| 4660|X|(Refer to figure 126 or 126A.) If cleared for a straight-in LOC approach from over OALDY, it means the flight should|begin final approach without making a procedure turn.|comply with straight-in landing minimums.|land straight in on runway 31.||| 4661|X|(Refer to figure 126 or 126A.) What is the ability to identify the RRS 2.5 stepdown fix worth in terms of localizer circle-to-land minimums for a category C aircraft?|Decreases visibility by 1/2 SM.|Decreases MDA by 20 feet.|Without the stepdown fix, a circling approach is not available.||| 4662|X|(Refer to figure 127 or 127A.) If cleared for NDB RWY 28 approach (Lancaster/Fairfield) over ZZV VOR, the flight would be expected to\nCategory A aircraft\nLast assigned altitude 3,000 feet|proceed straight in from CRISY to the S-28 minimums of 1620-1.|proceed to CRISY, then execute the teardrop procedure as depicted on the approach chart.|proceed direct to CASER, then straight in to S-28 minimums of 1620-1.||| 4663|X|When a VOR/DME is collocated under frequency pairings and the VOR portion is inoperative, the DME identifier will repeat at an interval of|20 second intervals at 1020 Hz.|60 second intervals at 1350 Hz.|30 second intervals at 1350 Hz.||| 4664|X|When installed with the ILS and specified in the approach procedures, DME may be used|in lieu of the OM.|to determine distance from TDZ.|in lieu of visibility requirements.||| 4665|X|By which means may a pilot determine if a Loran C equipped aircraft is approved for IFR operations?|Check the Airplane Flight Manual Supplement.|Not necessary; Loran C is not approved for IFR.|Check aircraft logbook.||| 4666|X|Full scale deflection of a CDI occurs when the course deviation bar or needle|deflects from left side of the scale to right side of the scale.|deflects from half scale left to half scale right.|deflects from the center of the scale to either far side of the scale.||| 4667|X|If an early missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, the following procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC.|Maintain altitude and continue past MAP for 1 minute or 1 mile whichever occurs first.|Begin a climbing turn immediately and follow missed approach procedures.|Proceed to the missed approach point at or above the MDA or DH before executing a turning maneuver.||| 4668|X|When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established on course, the additional circuits can be made|only in an emergency.|at pilot's discretion.|only if pilot advises ATC and ATC approves.||| 4669|X|How does a pilot determine if DME is available on an ILS/LOC?|IAP indicate DME\TACAN channel in LOC frequency box.|LOC\DME are indicated on en route low altitude frequency box.|LOC\DME frequencies available in the Airman's Information Manual.||| 4670|X|When simultaneous approaches are in progress, how does each pilot receive radar advisories?|One pilot on tower frequency and the other on approach control frequency.|On tower frequency.|On approach control frequency.||| 4671|X|During an instrument approach, under what conditions, if any, is the holding pattern course reversal not required?|None, since it is always mandatory.|When cleared for the approach.|When radar vectors are provided.||| 4672|X|During an instrument precision approach, terrain and obstacle clearance depends on adherence to|natural and man made reference point information.|terrain contour information.|minimum altitude shown on the IAP.||| 4673|X|(Refer to figure 128 or 128A.) What is the helicopter landing minimum for the VOR RWY 36 approach at Price/Carbon County Airport?|500 foot ceiling and 1/2 mile visibility.|one half mile visibility.|1 mile visibility.||| 4674|X|(Refer to figure 128 or 128A.) How should a pilot determine when the DME at Price/Carbon County Airport is inoperative?|The airborne DME may appear normal, but there will be no code tone.|The airborne DME will always indicate ``0'' mileage.|The airborne DME will ``search,'' but will not ``lock on.''||| 4675|X|(Refer to figure 128 or 128A.) What type entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern depicted on the VOR RWY 36 approach chart for Price/Carbon County Airport?|Teardrop only.|Direct only.|Parallel only.||| 4676|X|(Refer to figure 128 or 128A.) What is the helicopter MDA for a straight in VOR RWY 36 approach at Price/Carbon County Airport (VOR only)?|6,400 feet MSL.|500 feet MSL.|6,090 feet MSL.||| 4677|X|(Refer to figure 128 or 128A.) At which points may you initiate a descent to the next lower minimum altitude when cleared for the VOR RWY 36 approach, from the PUC R 095 IAF (DME operative)?|Start descent from 8,000 when established on the PUC R-186, from 6,400 at the 4 DME fix, and from 6,180 when landing requirements are met.|Start descent from 8,000 when established on final, from 7,500 when at the 4 DME fix, and from 6,180 when landing requirements are met.|Start descent from 8,000 at the R-127, from 6,400 at the LR-127, from 6,180 at the 4 DME fix.||| 4678|X|(Refer to figure 128 or 128A.) What is the purpose of the 10,300 MSA on the Price/Carbon County Airport Approach Chart?|It provides an altitude above which navigational course guidance is assured.|It provides safe clearance above the highest obstacle in the defined sector out to 25 NM.|It is the minimum vector altitude for radar vectors in the sector southeast of PUC between 020° and 290° magnetic bearing to PUC VOR.||| 4679|X|(Refer to figure 129 or 129A.) As you approach LABER during a straight-in RNAV RWY 36 approach in a helicopter, Little Rock Approach Control advises that the ceiling is 400 feet and the visibility is 1/4 mile. Do regulations permit you to continue the approach and land?|No, neither the ceiling nor the visibility meet regulatory requirements.|Yes, only a 1/4 mile visibility or an RVR of 1,200 feet is required for any approach, including RNAV.|No, you may not reduce the visibility prescribed for Category A airplanes by more than 50 percent.||| 4680|X|(Refer to figure 129 or 129A.) What indication should you get when it is time to turn inbound while in the procedure turn at LABER?|4 DME miles from LABER.|12 DME miles from LIT VORTAC.|10 DME miles from the MAP.||| 4681|X|(Refer to figure 129 or 129A.) What type of entry is recommended to the missed approach holding pattern if the inbound heading is 050°?|Direct.|Parallel.|Teardrop.||| 4682|X|(Refer to figure 129 or 129A.) How should the missed approach point be identified when executing the RNAV RWY 36 approach at Adams Field?|When time has expired for 5 NM past the FAF.|When the TO FROM indicator changes.|Upon arrival at 760 feet on the glidepath.||| 4683|X|(Refer to figure 129 or 129A.) What is the position of LABER relative to the reference facility?|198°, 8 NM.|316°, 24.3 NM.|177°, 10 NM.||| 4684|X|(Refer to figure 129 or 129A.) What minimum airborne equipment is required to be operative for RNAV RWY 36 approach at Adams Field? |Any approved RNAV receiver.|An approved RNAV receiver that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance.|A transponder and an approved RNAV receiver that provides both horizontal and vertical guidance.||| 4685|X|(Refer to figure 130 or 130A.) How does an LDA facility, such as the one at Roanoke Regional, differ from a standard ILS approach facility?|The LOC is offset from the runway.|The GS is unusable beyond the MM.|The LOC is wider.||| 4686|X|(Refer to figure 130 or 130A.) What are the procedure turn restrictions on the LDA RWY 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?|Remain within 10 NM of the outer marker on the north side of the approach course.|Remain within 10 NM of CLAMM INT and on the north side of the approach course.|Remain within 10 NM of the airport on the north side of the approach course.||| 4687|X|(Refer to figure 130 or 130A.) What are the restrictions regarding circle to land procedures for LDA RWY/GS 6 approach at Roanoke Regional? |Circling not authorized NW of RWY 6 24.|Circling to runway 24 not authorized.|Visibility increased 1/2 mile for circling approach.||| 4688|X|(Refer to figure 130 or 130A.) At what minimum altitude should you cross CLAMM intersection during the S LDA 6 approach at Roanoke Regional?|4,200 MSL.|2,800 MSL.|4,182 MSL.||| 4689|X|(Refer to figure 130 or 130A.) How should the pilot identify the missed approach point for the S LDA GS 6 approach to Roanoke Regional?|Arrival at 1.0 DME on the LDA course.|Arrival at 1,540 feet on the glide slope.|Time expired for distance from OM to MAP.||| 4690|X|(Refer to figure 131.) What is the landing minimum if you are cleared for the LOC RWY S 18 approach at Stapleton International? |5,000 RVR.|1 mile visibility.|300 foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.||| 4691|X|(Refer to figure 131.) What is the Category B HAT for the LOC RWY S-18 approach at Stapleton International? |547 AGL.|319 AGL.|300 AGL.||| 4692|X|Which of the following statements is true regarding Parallel ILS approaches?|Parallel ILS approaches provide aircraft a minimum of two miles radar separation between successive aircraft on the adjacent localizer course.|Landing minimums to the adjacent runway will be higher than the minimums to the primary runway, but will normally be lower than the published circling minimums.|Parallel ILS approach runway centerlines are separated by at least 4,300 feet and standard IFR separation is provided on the adjacent runway.||| 4693|X|(Refer to figure 131.) Which approach and tower frequencies are appropriate if you are approaching Stapleton International Airport from the north and are cleared for the LOC RWY 18 approach?|127.4 and 118.3.|125.6 and 119.5.|120.8 and 119.5.||| 4694|X|(Refer to figure 131.) What are the alternate minimums for the LOC RWY 18 approach at Stapleton International Airport?|800 2.|Nonstandard.|600 2.||| 4695|X|(Refer to figure 131.) What minimum equipment, in addition to voice communications, is required to make the LOC RWY 18 approach at Stapleton International Airport?|VOR/LOC, ADF, and DME.|VOR/LOC, transponder with altitude/ encoding.|DME, transponder with altitude encoding, VOR/LOC, and Marker Beacon.||| 4696|X|(Refer to figure 133 or 133A.) How should a pilot reverse course to get established on the inbound course of the ILS RWY 9, if radar vectoring or the three IAF's are not utilized?|Make an appropriate entry to the depicted holding pattern at Swan Lake OM/INT.|Execute a standard 45° procedure turn toward Seal Beach VORTAC or Pomona VORTAC.|Use any type of procedure turn, but remain within 10 NM of Riverside VOR.||| 4697|X|(Refer to figure 133 or 133A.) If the Class D airspace is not effective, what is the LOC/VOR minima for a helicopter if cleared for the S LOC 9 approach at Riverside Municipal?|991 and RVR 24.|1,200 and 1/4 mile.|1,300 and 1/4 mile.||| 4698|X|(Refer to figure 133 or 133A.) What type of entry is recommended for the missed approach holding pattern at Riverside Municipal?|Parallel.|Teardrop.|Direct.||| 4699|X|(Refer to figure 133 or 133A.) What action should the pilot take if the marker beacon receiver becomes inoperative during the S ILS 9 approach at Riverside Municipal?|Substitute SWAN LAKE INT. for the OM and surveillance radar for the MM.|Raise the DH 100 feet (50 feet for the OM and 50 feet for the MM).|Substitute SWAN LAKE INT. for the OM and use published minimums.||| 4700|X|(Refer to figure 133 or 133A.) Why are two VOR/LOC receivers recommended to obtain an MDA of 1,160 when making an S LOC 9 approach to Riverside Municipal?|In order to identify Riverside VOR.|To utilize the published stepdown fix.|To obtain R 327 of PDZ when on the localizer course.||| 4701|X|(Refer to figure 133 or 133A.) What is the minimum altitude descent procedure if cleared for the S ILS 9 approach from Seal Beach VORTAC?|Descend and maintain 3,000 to JASER INT, descend to 2,800 when established on the LOC course, intercept and maintain the GS to 991 (DH).|Descend and maintain 3,000 to JASER INT, descend to and maintain 2,500 until crossing SWAN LAKE, descend and maintain 1,260 until crossing AGNES, and to 991 (DH) after passing AGNES.|Descend and maintain 3,000 to JASER INT, descend to 2,500 while established on the LOC course inbound, intercept and maintain the GS to 991 (DH).||| 4702|X|What is a difference between an SDF and an LDA facility?|The SDF course has no glide slope guidance while the LDA does.|The SDF has no marker beacons while the LDA has at least an OM.|The SDF course width is either 6° or 12° while the LDA course width is approximately 5°.||| 4703|X|What is the difference between a Localizer Type Directional Aid (LDA) and the ILS localizer?|The LDA uses a course width of 6° or 12°, while an ILS uses only 5°.|The LDA signal is generated from a VOR-type facility and has no glide slope.|The LDA is not aligned with the runway.||| 4704|X|How wide is an SDF course?|Either 3° or 6°.|Varies from 5° to 10°.|Either 6° or 12°.||| 4705|X|What are the main differences between the SDF and the localizer of an ILS?|The course width for the localizer will always be 5° while the SDF course will be between 6° and 12°.|The useable off course indications are limited to 35° for the localizer and up to 90° for the SDF.|The SDF course may not be aligned with the runway and the course may be wider.||| 4706|X|A pilot is making an ILS approach and is past the OM to a runway which has a VASI. What action should the pilot take if an electronic glide slope malfunction occurs and the pilot has the VASI in sight?|The pilot must request an LOC approach, and may descend below the VASI at the pilot's discretion.|The pilot may continue the approach and use the VASI glide slope in place of the electronic glide slope.|The pilot should inform ATC of the malfunction and then descend immediately to the localizer DH and make a localizer approach.||| 4707|X|What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?|Light quartering tailwind.|Direct headwind.|Direct tailwind.||| 4708|X|Wake turbulence is near maximum behind a jet transport just after takeoff because|of the high angle of attack and high gross weight.|the engines are at maximum thrust output at slow airspeed.|the gear and flap configuration increases the turbulence to maximum.||| 4709|X|What effect would a light crosswind of approximately 7 knots have on vortex behavior?|The downwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.|The light crosswind would rapidly dissipate vortex strength.|The upwind vortex would tend to remain over the runway.||| 4710|X|When landing behind a large jet aircraft, at which point on the runway should you plan to land?|At least 1,000 feet beyond the jet's touchdown point.|If any crosswind, land on the windward side of the runway and prior to the jet's touchdown point.|Beyond the jet's touchdown point.||| 4711|X|Where may you use a surveillance approach?|At any airport that has an approach control.|At airports for which civil radar instrument approach minimums have been published.|At any airport which has radar service.||| 4712|X|You arrive at your destination airport on an IFR flight plan in a helicopter. Which is a prerequisite condition for the performance of a contact approach?|A flight visibility of at least 1/2 NM.|Clear of clouds and at least 1 SM flight visibility.|A ground visibility of at least 2 SM.||| 4713|X|During a precision instrument approach (using Category A minimums) a helicopter may not be operated below DH unless|the visibility is forecast to be at or above the landing minimums prescribed for that procedure.|positioned such that a normal approach to the runway of intended landing can be made.|the ceiling is forecast to be at or above landing minimums prescribed for that procedure.||| 4714|X|Which procedure should be followed by a pilot who is circling to land in a Category B airplane, but is maintaining a speed 5 knots faster than the maximum specified for that category?|Use Category B minimums.|Use Category D minimums since they apply to all circling approaches.|Use the approach minimums appropriate for Category C.||| 4715|X|How can an IAF be identified on a Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP) Chart?|Any fix illustrated within the 10 mile ring other than the FAF or stepdown fix.|The procedure turn and the fixes on the feeder facility ring.|All fixes that are labeled IAF.||| 4716|X|RVR minimums for landing are prescribed in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the intended runway at the time. Which of the following would be an operational consideration?|RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.|RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.|RVR minimums which are specified in the procedures should be converted and applied as ground visibility.||| 4717|X|Aircraft approach categories are based on|certificated approach speed at maximum gross weight.|1.3 times the stall speed at maximum gross weight.|1.3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum gross landing weight.||| 4718|X|What are the main differences between a visual approach and a contact approach?|Any time the pilot reports the field in sight, ATC may clear the pilot for a contact approach; for a visual approach, the pilot must advise that the approach can be made under VFR conditions.|The pilot must request a contact approach; the pilot may be assigned a visual approach and higher weather minimums must exist.|The pilot must request a visual approach and report having the field in sight; ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist.||| 4719|X|When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?|Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum; visibility 2 miles.|600 1 if the airport has an ILS.|The landing minimums for the approach to be used.||| 4720|X|When passing through an abrupt wind shear which involves a shift from a tailwind to a headwind, what power management would normally be required to maintain a constant indicated airspeed and ILS glide slope?|Higher than normal power initially, followed by a decrease as the shear is encountered, then an increase.|Lower than normal power initially, followed by a further decrease as the wind shear is encountered, then an increase.|Higher than normal power initially, followed by a further increase as the wind shear is encountered, then a decrease.||| 4721|X|What effect will a change in wind direction have upon maintaining a 3° glide slope at a constant true airspeed?|When groundspeed increases, rate of descent must increase.|When groundspeed decreases, rate of descent must increase.|Rate of descent must be constant to remain on the glide slope.||| 4722|X|Upon what maximum airspeed is the instrument approach criteria for a helicopter based?|80 knots.|100 knots.|90 knots.||| 4723|X|All helicopters are considered to be in which approach category for a helicopter IAP?|B.|A or B, depending upon weight.|A.||| 4724|X|What reduction, if any, to visibility requirements is authorized when using a fixed wing IAP for a helicopter instrument approach?|All visibility requirements may be reduced by one half.|The visibility requirements may be reduced by one half, but in no case lower than 1,200 RVR or 1/4 mile.|All visibility requirements may be reduced by one fourth.||| 4725|X|What is the pilot in command's responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.)|Reduce TAS to 160 knots and maintain until advised by ATC.|Reduce IAS to 160 MPH and maintain until advised by ATC.|Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots.||| 4726|X|You are being vectored to the ILS approach course, but have not been cleared for the approach. It becomes evident that you will pass through the localizer course. What action should be taken?|Start a turn to the inbound heading and inquire if you are cleared for the approach.|Turn outbound and make a procedure turn.|Continue on the assigned heading and query ATC.||| 4727|X|While flying a 3° glide slope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. Which conditions should the pilot expect?|Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.|Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.|Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.||| 4728|X|How is ATC radar used for instrument approaches when the facility is approved for approach control service?|Course guidance to the final approach course, ASR and PAR approaches, and the monitoring of nonradar approaches.|Precision approaches, weather surveillance, and as a substitute for any inoperative component of a navigation aid used for approaches.|ASR approaches, weather surveillance, and course guidance by approach control.||| 4729|X|Which range facility associated with the ILS is identified by the last two letters of the localizer identification group?|Outer marker.|Middle compass locator.|Inner marker.||| 4730|X|Which range facility associated with the ILS can be identified by a two letter coded signal?|Compass locator.|Middle marker.|Outer marker.||| 4731|X|Which pilot action is appropriate if more than one component of an ILS is unusable?|Request another approach appropriate to the equipment that is useable.|Use the highest minimum required by any single component that is unusable.|Raise the minimums a total of that required by each component that is unusable.||| 4732|X|Which substitution is permitted when an ILS component is inoperative?|A compass locator or precision radar may be substituted for the ILS outer or middle marker.|DME, when located at the localizer antenna site, should be substituted for the outer or middle marker.|ADF or VOR bearings which cross either the outer or middle marker sites may be substituted for these markers.||| 4733|X|What facilities, if any, may be substituted for an inoperative middle marker during an ILS approach without affecting the straight in minimums?|Compass locator, PAR, and ASR.|ASR.|Substitution not necessary, minimums do not change.||| 4734|X|When being radar vectored for an ILS approach, at what point may you start a descent from your last assigned altitude to a lower minimum altitude if cleared for the approach?|When established on a segment of a published route or IAP.|You may descend immediately to published glide slope interception altitude.|Only after you are established on the final approach unless informed otherwise by ATC.||| 4735|X|What are the requirements for a contact approach to an airport that has an approved IAP, if the pilot is on an instrument flight plan and clear of clouds?|The controller must determine that the pilot can see the airport at the altitude flown and can remain clear of clouds.|The pilot must request the approach, have at least 1 mile visibility, and be reasonably sure of remaining clear of clouds.|The pilot must agree to the approach when given by ATC and the controller must have determined that the visibility was at least 1 mile and be reasonably sure the pilot can remain clear of clouds.||| 4736|X|When is radar service terminated during a visual approach?|Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower.|Immediately upon acceptance of the approach by the pilot.|When ATC advises, ``Radar service terminated; resume own navigation.''||| 4737|X|When may you obtain a contact approach?|ATC may assign a contact approach if VFR conditions exist or you report the runway in sight and are clear of clouds.|ATC may assign a contact approach if you are below the clouds and the visibility is at least 1 mile.|ATC will assign a contact approach only upon request if the reported visibility is at least 1 mile.||| 4738|X|Under which conditions is hydroplaning most likely to occur?|When rudder is used for directional control instead of allowing the nosewheel to contact the surface early in the landing roll on a wet runway.|During conditions of standing water, slush, high speed, and smooth runway texture.|During a landing on any wet runway when brake application is delayed until a wedge of water begins to build ahead of the tires.||| 4739|X|Thrust is managed to maintain IAS, and glide slope is being flown. What characteristics should be observed when a headwind shears to be a constant tailwind?|PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Increases, then decreases to approach speed.|PITCH ATTITUDE: Increases; REQUIRED THRUST: Reduced, then increased; VERTICAL SPEED: Decreases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.|PITCH ATTITUDE: Decreases; REQUIRED THRUST: Increased, then reduced; VERTICAL SPEED: Increases; IAS: Decreases, then increases to approach speed.||| 4740|X|When cleared to execute a published sidestep maneuver for a specific approach and landing on the parallel runway, at what point is the pilot expected to commence this maneuver?|As soon as possible after the runway or runway environment is in sight.|At the published minimum altitude for a circling approach.|At the localizer MDA minimum and when the runway is in sight.||| 4741|X|Which information, in addition to headings, does the radar controller provide without request during an ASR approach?|When to commence descent to MDA, the aircraft's position each mile on final from the runway, and arrival at the MAP.|When reaching the MDA.|The recommended altitude for each mile from the runway.||| 4742|X|Which of these facilities may be substituted for an MM during a complete ILS IAP?|A VOR/DME fix.|Compass locator and precision radar.|Surveillance and precision radar.||| 4743|X|What conditions are necessary before ATC can authorize a visual approach?|You must have the airport in sight or a preceding aircraft to be followed, and be able to proceed to the airport in VFR conditions.|You must have the airport in sight or the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to proceed to, and land in IFR conditions.|You must have the preceding aircraft in sight, and be able to remain in VFR weather conditions.||| 4744|X|If all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not established, the missed approach should be initiated upon|expiration of the time listed on the approach chart for missed approach.|arrival at the DH on the glide slope.|arrival at the middle marker.||| 4745|X|The rate of descent required to stay on the ILS glide slope|will remain constant if the indicated airspeed remains constant.|must be decreased if the groundspeed is decreased.|must be increased if the groundspeed is decreased.||| 4746|X|Which fixes on the IAP Charts are initial approach fixes?|Any fix that is identified by the letters IAF.|Any fix on the en route facilities ring, the feeder facilities ring, and those at the start of arc approaches.|Only the fixes at the start of arc approaches and those on either the feeder facilities ring or en route facilities ring that have a transition course shown to the approach procedure.||| 4747|X|Which indications will a pilot receive where an IM is installed on a front course ILS approach?|Alternate dashes and a blue light.|Six dots per second and a flashing white light.|One dot per second and a steady amber light.||| 4748|X|To remain on the ILS glidepath, the rate of descent must be|decreased if the groundspeed is increased.|increased if the groundspeed is increased.|decreased if the airspeed is increased.||| 4749|X|When may a pilot make a straight in landing, if using an IAP having only circling minimums?|The pilot may land straight in if the runway is the active runway and he has been cleared to land.|A straight in landing may not be made, but the pilot may continue to the runway at MDA and then circle to land on the runway.|A straight in landing may be made if the pilot has the runway in sight in sufficient time to make a normal approach for landing, and has been cleared to land.||| 4750|X|A contact approach is an approach procedure that may be used|in lieu of conducting a SIAP.|in lieu of a visual approach.|if assigned by ATC and will facilitate the approach.||| 4751|X|Under which condition does ATC issue a STAR?|Only if the pilot requests a STAR in the ``Remarks'' section of the flight plan.|To all pilots wherever STAR's are available.|When ATC deems it appropriate, unless the pilot requests ``No STAR.''||| 4752|X|The rate of descent on the glide slope is dependent upon|true airspeed.|groundspeed.|calibrated airspeed.||| 4753|X|Approximately what height is the glide slope centerline at the MM of a typical ILS?|100 feet.|300 feet.|200 feet.||| 4754|X|If the RVR is not reported, what meteorological value should you substitute for 2,400 RVR?|A ground visibility of 1/2 SM.|A ground visibility of 1/2 NM.|A slant range visibility of 2,400 feet for the final approach segment of the published approach procedure.||| 4755|X|While flying a 3° glide slope, a headwind shears to a tailwind. Which conditions should the pilot expect on the glide slope?|Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to go below glide slope.|Airspeed and pitch attitude decrease and there is a tendency to remain on the glide slope.|Airspeed and pitch attitude increase and there is a tendency to go above glide slope.||| 4756|X|The glide slope and localizer are centered, but the airspeed is too fast. Which should be adjusted initially?|Pitch only.|Power only.|Pitch and power.||| 4757|X|While being vectored, if crossing the ILS final approach course becomes imminent and an approach clearance has not been issued, what action should be taken by the pilot?|Turn inbound and execute the missed approach procedure at the outer marker if approach clearance has not been received.|Turn outbound on the final approach course, execute a procedure turn, and inform ATC.|Maintain the last assigned heading and query ATC.||| 4758|X|If during a VFR practice instrument approach, Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should be taken?|Enter the clouds, since ATC authorization for practice approaches is considered an IFR clearance.|Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/heading will not permit VFR.|Abandon the approach.||| 4759|X|The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway at the time. Which of the following would apply?|RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing the runway has an operative HIRL system.|RVR minimums may be disregarded, providing all other components of the ILS system are operative.|RVR minimums which are specified in the procedure should be converted and applied as ground visibility.||| 4760|X|What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?|600 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.|800 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.|400 foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility.||| 4761|X|What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan?|The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach.|The point of first intended landing.|The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach.||| 4762|X|If the RVR equipment is inoperative for an IAP that requires a visibility of 2,400 RVR, how should the pilot expect the visibility requirement to be reported in lieu of the published RVR?|As a ground visibility of 1/2 SM.|As a slant range visibility of 2,400 feet.|As an RVR of 2,400 feet.||| 4763|X|If during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, the pilot is|permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.|required to immediately execute the missed approach procedure.|permitted to continue the approach to the approach threshold of the ILS runway.||| 4764|X|Immediately after passing the final approach fix inbound during an ILS approach in IFR conditions, the glide slope warning flag appears. The pilot is|permitted to continue the approach and descend to the DH.|permitted to continue the approach and descend to the localizer MDA.|required to immediately begin the prescribed missed approach procedure.||| 4765|X|In the case of operations over an area designated as a mountainous area, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of|3 SM from the course flown.|4 NM from the course flown.|4 SM from the course flown.||| 4767|X|Where a holding pattern is specified in lieu of a procedure turn, the holding maneuver must be executed within|the 1 minute time limitation or published leg length.|10 knots of the specified holding speed.|a radius of 5 miles from the holding fix.||| 4768|X|Which of the following conditions is required before ``timed approaches from a holding fix'' may be conducted?|If more than one missed approach procedure is available, only one may require a course reversal.|If more than one missed approach procedure is available, none may require a course reversal.|Direct communication between the pilot and the tower must be established prior to beginning the approach.||| 4769|X|An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will|allow for a descent from the MEA approach, and a landing under basic VFR.|be at least 300 feet and 2 miles.|be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile.||| 4770|X|Which substitution is appropriate during an ILS approach?|DME, when located at the localizer antenna site, should be substituted for either the outer or middle marker.|A VOR radial crossing the outer marker site may be substituted for the outer marker.|LOC minimums should be substituted for ILS minimums whenever the glide slope becomes inoperative.||| 4771|X|Assume this clearance is received:\n''CLEARED FOR ILS RUNWAY 07 LEFT APPROACH, SIDE STEP TO RUNWAY 07 RIGHT.''\nWhen would the pilot be expected to commence the side step maneuver?|Any time after becoming aligned with the final approach course of Runway 07 left, and after passing the final approach fix.|After reaching the circling minimums for Runway 07 right.|As soon as possible after the runway environment is in sight.||| 4772|X|During a precision radar or ILS approach, the rate of descent required to remain on the glide slope will|decrease as the groundspeed increases.|remain the same regardless of groundspeed.|increase as the groundspeed increases.||| 4773|X|When tracking inbound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?|Drift corrections should be made in 5° increments after passing the outer marker.|Drift corrections should be made in 10° increments after passing the outer marker.|Drift corrections should be accurately established before reaching the outer marker and completion of the approach should be accomplished with heading corrections no greater than 2°.||| 4774|X|(Refer to figure 134.) Unless a higher angle is necessary for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath angle for a 2 bar VASI?|3.25°.|2.75°.|3.00°.||| 4775|X|Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2 bar VASI?|If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.|If on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white.|If on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white.||| 4776|X|The middle and far bars of a 3 bar VASI will|both appear white to the pilot when on the upper glidepath.|constitute a 2 bar VASI for using the lower glidepath.|constitute a 2 bar VASI for using the upper glidepath.||| 4777|X|Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of|three separate light units, each projecting a different color approach path.|three separate light projecting units of very high candle power with a daytime range of approximately 5 miles.|a single unit, projecting a three color visual approach path.||| 4778|X|When on the proper glidepath of a 2 bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as|white and the far bar as white.|white and the far bar as red.|red and the far bar as white.||| 4779|X|If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3 bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should|continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight.|start a climb to reach the proper glidepath.|level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path.||| 4780|X|Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI?|One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber.|Three glidepaths, with the center path indicated by a white light.|Two visual glidepaths for the runway.||| 4781|X|Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?|Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR.|Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.|Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.||| 4782|X|(Refer to figure 135.) Unless a higher angle is required for obstacle clearance, what is the normal glidepath for a 3 bar VASI?|2.75°.|2.3°.|3.0°.||| 4783|X|(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe when on the lower glidepath?|5.|6.|4.||| 4784|X|(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is above both glidepaths?|7.|5.|6.||| 4785|X|(Refer to figure 135.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is below both glidepaths?|5.|6.|4.||| 4786|X|(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration depicts an ``on glidepath'' indication?|10.|11.|8.||| 4787|X|(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration depicts a ``slightly low'' (2.8°) indication?|11.|9.|10.||| 4788|X|(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is on a glidepath higher than 3.5°?|11.|9.|8.||| 4789|X|(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is ``slightly high'' (3.2°) on the glidepath?|9.|11.|8.||| 4790|X|(Refer to figure 136.) Which illustration would a pilot observe if the aircraft is less than 2.5°?|12.|11.|10.||| 4791|X|(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (A) from the beginning of the runway to the fixed distance marker?|500 feet.|1,500 feet.|1,000 feet.||| 4792|X|(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (B) from the beginning of the runway to the touchdown zone marker?|750 feet.|250 feet.|500 feet.||| 4793|X|(Refer to figure 137.) What is the distance (C) from the beginning of the touchdown zone marker to the beginning of the fixed distance marker?|250 feet.|500 feet.|1,000 feet.||| 4794|X|Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway?|Arrows leading to the threshold mark.|Centerline dashes starting at the threshold.|Red chevron marks in the nonlanding portion of the runway.||| 4795|X|Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one on each side of the runway threshold?|RAIL.|REIL.|HIRL.||| 4796|X|The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide|rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility.|rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility.|a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position.||| 4797|X|(Refer to figure 138.) What night operations, if any, are authorized between the approach end of the runway and the threshold lights? |Taxi and takeoff operations are permitted, providing the takeoff operations are toward the visible green threshold lights.|No aircraft operations are permitted short of the threshold lights.|Only taxi operations are permitted in the area short of the threshold lights.||| 4798|X|What international Morse Code identifier is used to identify a specific interim standard microwave landing system?|A three letter Morse Code identifier preceded by the Morse Code for the letter ``M''.|A three letter Morse Code identifier preceded by the Morse Code for the letters ``ML''.|A two letter Morse Code identifier preceded by the Morse Code for the letters ``IM''.||| 4799|X|To at least which altitude AGL is the approach azimuth guidance angle coverage of an MLS?|8,000 feet.|10,000 feet.|20,000 feet.||| 4800|X|What are the lateral approach azimuth angle limits, referenced to either side of the landing runway, of an MLS?|20°.|At least 40°.|At least 15°.||| 4801|X|What are the respective range limits for the front and back guidance of an MLS?|10 NM and 10 NM.|20 NM and 7 NM.|15 NM and 10 NM.||| 4802|X|Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of|motion reversal.|turning.|rising or falling.||| 4803|X|Due to visual illusion, when landing on a narrower than usual runway, the aircraft will appear to be|higher than actual, leading to a lower than normal approach.|lower than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach.|higher than actual, leading to a higher than normal approach.||| 4804|X|What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway?|An upsloping runway.|A wider than usual runway.|A downsloping runway.||| 4805|X|Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC or simulated instrument conditions can cause|pilot disorientation.|elevator illusion.|false horizon.||| 4806|X|A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create an illusion known as |autokinesis.|false horizons.|elevator illusions.||| 4807|X|An abrupt change from climb to straight-and-level flight can create the illusion of|a noseup attitude.|a descent with the wings level.|tumbling backwards.||| 4808|X|A rapid acceleration during takeoff can create the illusion of|being in a noseup attitude.|diving into the ground.|spinning in the opposite direction.||| 4809|X|Why is hypoxia particularly dangerous during flights with one pilot?|The pilot may not be able to control the aircraft even if using oxygen.|Symptoms of hypoxia may be difficult to recognize before the pilot's reactions are affected.|Night vision may be so impaired that the pilot cannot see other aircraft.||| 4810|X|The sensations which lead to spatial disorientation during instrument flight conditions|must be suppressed and complete reliance placed on the indications of the flight instruments.|are frequently encountered by beginning instrument pilots, but never by pilots with moderate instrument experience.|occur, in most instances, during the initial period of transition from visual to instrument flight.||| 4811|X|How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?|Read and interpret the flight instruments, and act accordingly.|Rely on kinesthetic sense.|Use a very rapid cross check.||| 4812|X|Which statement is correct regarding the use of cockpit lighting for night flight?|Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.|Reducing the lighting intensity to a minimum level will eliminate blind spots.|The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation.||| 4813|X|How can an instrument pilot best overcome spatial disorientation?|Properly interpret the flight instruments and act accordingly.|Use a very rapid cross check.|Avoid banking in excess of 30°.||| 4814|X|A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation if|body signals are used to interpret flight attitude.|kinesthetic senses are ignored.|eyes are moved often in the process of cross checking the flight instruments.||| 4815|X|Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?|Rely on the kinesthetic sense.|Reduce head and eye movements to the extent possible.|Rely on the indications of the flight instruments.||| 4816|X|What action should be taken if hyperventilation is suspected?|Breathe at a slower rate by taking very deep breaths.|Consciously force yourself to take deep breaths and breathe at a faster rate than normal.|Consciously breathe at a slower rate than normal.||| 4817|X|Which use of cockpit lighting is correct for night flight?|Coloration shown on maps is least affected by the use of direct red lighting.|The use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will not impair night adaptation.|Reducing the interior lighting intensity to a minimum level.||| 4818|X|Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?|Concentrate on relative movement detected in the peripheral vision area.|Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.|Continuous sweeping of the windshield from right to left.||| 4819|X|What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?|The eyes tend to overwork in haze and do not detect relative movement easily.|Haze creates the illusion of being a greater distance than actual from the runway, and causes pilots to fly a lower approach.|Haze causes the eyes to focus at infinity, making terrain features harder to see.||| 4820|X|As a rule of thumb, altitude corrections of less than 100 feet should be corrected by using a|half bar width on the attitude indicator.|two bar width on the attitude indicator.|full bar width on the attitude indicator.||| 4821|X|If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what airspeed indication can be expected?|Decrease of indicated airspeed during a climb.|No variation of indicated airspeed in level flight even if large power changes are made.|Constant indicated airspeed during a descent.||| 4822|X|During a ``no gyro'' approach and prior to being handed off to the final approach controller, the pilot should make all turns|standard rate unless otherwise advised.|any rate not exceeding a 30° bank.|one half standard rate unless otherwise advised.||| 4823|X|After being handed off to the final approach controller during a ``no gyro'' surveillance or precision approach, the pilot should make all turns|one half standard rate.|based upon the groundspeed of the aircraft.|standard rate.||| 4824|X|(Refer to figures 139 and 140.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the 1.9 NM point is indicated?|710 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 140 feet above the glide slope.|710 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 140 feet below the glide slope.|430 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 28 feet above the glide slope.||| 4825|X|(Refer to figures 139 and 141.) Which displacement from the localizer centerline and glide slope at the 1,300 foot point from the runway is indicated?|28 feet above the glide slope and approximately 250 feet to the left of the runway centerline.|21 feet below the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the right of the runway centerline.|21 feet above the glide slope and approximately 320 feet to the left of the runway centerline.||| 4826|X|(Refer to figures 139 and 142.) Which displacement from the localizer and glide slope at the outer marker is indicated? |775 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 420 feet below the glide slope.|1,550 feet to the right of the localizer centerline and 210 feet above the glide slope.|1,550 feet to the left of the localizer centerline and 210 feet below the glide slope.||| 4827|X|(Refer to figure 143.) The heading on a remote indicating compass is 120° and the magnetic compass indicates 110°. What action is required to correctly align the heading indicator with the magnetic compass?|Select the slaved gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button.|Select the free gyro mode and depress the counter clockwise heading drive button.|Select the free gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button.||| 4828|X|(Refer to figure 143.) When the system is in the free gyro mode, depressing the clockwise manual heading drive button will rotate the remote indicating compass card to the|right to eliminate right compass card error.|left to eliminate left compass card error.|right to eliminate left compass card error.||| 4829|X|(Refer to figure 143.) The heading on a remote indicating compass is 5° to the left of that desired. What action is required to move the desired heading under the heading reference?|Select the free gyro mode and depress the counter clockwise heading drive button.|Select the free gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button.|Select the slaved gyro mode and depress the clockwise heading drive button.||| 4830|X|If both the ram air input and the drain hole of the pitot system are blocked, what reaction should you observe on the airspeed indicator when power is applied and a climb is initiated out of severe icing conditions?|No change until an actual climb rate is established, then indicated airspeed will increase.|The airspeed would drop to, and remain at, zero.|The indicated airspeed would show a continuous deceleration while climbing.||| 4831|X|What indication should be observed on a turn coordinator during a left turn while taxiing?|The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball moves to the right.|Both the miniature aircraft and the ball will remain centered.|The miniature aircraft will show a turn to the left and the ball remains centered.||| 4832|X|The gyroscopic heading indicator is inoperative. What is the primary bank instrument in unaccelerated straight and level flight?|Attitude indicator.|Miniature aircraft of turn coordinator.|Magnetic compass.||| 4833|X|When airspeed is decreased in a turn, what must be done to maintain level flight?|Decrease the angle of bank and/or increase the angle of attack.|Increase the angle of attack.|Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.||| 4834|X|On the taxi check, the magnetic compass should|swing freely and indicate known headings.|swing opposite to the direction of turn when turning from north.|exhibit the same number of degrees of dip as the latitude.||| 4835|X|Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?|The horizon bar does not align itself with the miniature airplane after warmup.|The horizon bar vibrates during warmup.|The horizon bar tilts more than 5° while making taxi turns.||| 4836|X|What instruments are considered supporting bank instruments during a straight, stabilized climb at a constant rate?|Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.|Heading indicator and attitude indicator.|Heading indicator and turn coordinator.||| 4837|X|What instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively, when transitioning into a constant airspeed climb from straight and level flight?|Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.|Vertical speed, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure or tachometer.|Attitude indicator for both pitch and bank; airspeed indicator for power.||| 4838|X|What is the primary bank instrument once a standard rate turn is established?|Attitude indicator.|Heading indicator.|Turn coordinator.||| 4839|X|What does the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator directly display?|Rate of roll and rate of turn.|Angle of bank and rate of turn.|Angle of bank.||| 4840|X|What is the correct sequence in which to use the three skills used in instrument flying?|Aircraft control, cross check, and instrument interpretation.|Instrument interpretation, cross check, and aircraft control.|Cross check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.||| 4841|X|Which initial pitch attitude change on the attitude indicator should be made to correct altitude while at normal cruise in a helicopter?|One bar width.|One and one half bar width.|Two bar width.||| 4842|X|What pretakeoff check should be made of the attitude indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?|The miniature airplane should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.|The horizon bar should erect and become stable within 5 minutes.|The horizon bar does not vibrate during warmup.||| 4843|X|The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon|the horizontal lift component.|the vertical lift component.|centrifugal force.||| 4844|X|During a skidding turn to the right, what is the relationship between the component of lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?|Centrifugal force and horizontal lift are equal and the load factor is decreased.|Centrifugal force is less than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.|Centrifugal force is greater than horizontal lift and the load factor is increased.||| 4845|X|As power is increased to enter a 500 feet per minute rate of climb in straight flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively?|Airspeed indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.|Airspeed indicator, attitude indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.|VSI, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.||| 4846|X|During the initial acceleration on an instrument takeoff in a helicopter, what flight attitude should be established on the attitude indicator?|Level flight attitude.|Two bar widths low.|One bar width high.||| 4847|X|What indications are displayed by the miniature aircraft of a turn coordinator?|Indirect indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.|Direct indication of bank angle and pitch attitude.|Rate of roll and rate of turn.||| 4848|X|What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized climbing left turn at cruise climb airspeed?|Attitude indicator.|VSI.|Airspeed indicator.||| 4849|X|What is the primary pitch instrument during a stabilized autorotation?|Airspeed indicator.|VSI.|Altimeter.||| 4850|X|What is the primary pitch instrument when establishing a constant altitude standard rate turn?|Airspeed indicator.|Altimeter.|VSI.||| 4851|X|What is the initial primary bank instrument when establishing a level standard rate turn?|Attitude indicator.|Turn coordinator.|Heading indicator.||| 4852|X|During a stabilized autorotation, approximately what flight attitude should be established on the attitude indicator?|A pitch attitude that will give an established rate of descent of not more than 500 feet per minute.|Two bar widths below the artificial horizon.|Level flight attitude.||| 4853|X|What instrument(s) is(are) supporting bank instrument when entering a constant airspeed climb from straight and level flight?|Turn coordinator and heading indicator.|Heading indicator.|Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.||| 4854|X|What indication should a pilot observe if an airspeed indicator ram air input and drain hole are blocked?|The airspeed indicator will react as an altimeter.|No airspeed indicator change will occur during climbs or descents.|The airspeed indicator will show a decrease with an increase in altitude.||| 4855|X|What are the three fundamental skills involved in attitude instrument flying?|Cross check, emphasis, and aircraft control.|Cross check, instrument interpretation, and aircraft control.|Instrument interpretation, trim application, and aircraft control.||| 4856|X|What indication is presented by the miniature aircraft of the turn coordinator?|Direct indication of the bank attitude and the quality of the turn.|Quality of the turn.|Indirect indication of the bank attitude.||| 4857|X|During normal operation of a vacuum driven attitude indicator, what attitude indication should you see when rolling out from a 180° skidding turn to straight and level coordinated flight?|A nose high indication relative to level flight.|A straight and level coordinated flight indication.|The miniature aircraft shows a turn in the direction opposite the skid.||| 4858|X|What is the primary bank instrument while transitioning from straight and level flight to a standard rate turn to the left?|Heading indicator.|Turn coordinator (miniature aircraft).|Attitude indicator.||| 4859|X|What is the third fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?|Power control.|Instrument cross check.|Aircraft control.||| 4860|X|During normal coordinated turns, what error due to precession should you observe when rolling out to straight and level flight from a 180° steep turn to the right?|A straight and level coordinated flight indication.|The miniature aircraft would show a slight turn indication to the left.|The miniature aircraft would show a slight descent and wings level attitude.||| 4861|X|During coordinated turns, which force moves the pendulous vanes of a vacuum driven attitude indicator resulting in precession of the gyro toward the inside of the turn?|Deceleration.|Acceleration.|Centrifugal.||| 4862|X|What is the first fundamental skill in attitude instrument flying?|Instrument cross check.|Instrument interpretation.|Aircraft control.||| 4863|X|As power is reduced to change airspeed from high to low cruise in level flight, which instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power, respectively?|Altimeter, attitude indicator, and airspeed indicator.|Altimeter, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.|Attitude indicator, heading indicator, and manifold pressure gauge or tachometer.||| 4864|X|What information does a Mach meter present?|The ratio of aircraft indicated airspeed to the speed of sound.|The ratio of aircraft true airspeed to the speed of sound.|The ratio of aircraft equivalent airspeed, corrected for installation error, to the speed of sound.||| 4865|X|Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for bank control in straight and level flight?|Heading indicator.|Attitude indicator.|Turn and slip indicator.||| 4866|X|Which instruments are considered primary and supporting for bank, respectively, when establishing a level standard rate turn?|Turn coordinator and attitude indicator.|Turn coordinator and heading indicator.|Attitude indicator and turn coordinator.||| 4867|X|While recovering from an unusual flight attitude without the aid of the attitude indicator, approximate level pitch attitude is reached when the|airspeed arrives at cruising speed, the altimeter reverses its trend, and the vertical speed stops its movement.|airspeed and altimeter stop their movement and the VSI reverses its trend.|altimeter and vertical speed reverse their trend and the airspeed stops its movement.||| 4868|X|What is the relationship between centrifugal force and the horizontal lift component in a coordinated turn?|Horizontal lift and centrifugal force are equal.|Horizontal lift exceeds centrifugal force.|Centrifugal force exceeds horizontal lift.||| 4869|X|Which instruments, in addition to the attitude indicator, are pitch instruments?|Altimeter and VSI only.|Altimeter and airspeed only.|Altimeter, airspeed indicator, and vertical speed indicator.||| 4870|X|What force causes an airplane to turn?|Horizontal lift component.|Vertical lift component.|Rudder pressure or force around the vertical axis.||| 4871|X|Which instrument provides the most pertinent information (primary) for pitch control in straight and level flight?|Altimeter.|Attitude indicator.|Airspeed indicator.||| 4872|X|Which instruments are considered to be supporting instruments for pitch during change of airspeed in a level turn?|Altimeter and attitude indicator.|Attitude indicator and VSI.|Airspeed indicator and VSI.||| 4873|X|If an airplane is in an unusual flight attitude and the attitude indicator has exceeded its limits, which instruments should be relied on to determine pitch attitude before starting recovery?|Airspeed and altimeter.|VSI and airspeed to detect approaching VSI or VMO.|Turn indicator and VSI.||| 4874|X|Which instrument is considered primary for power as the airspeed reaches the desired value during change of airspeed in a level turn?|Altimeter.|Airspeed indicator.|Attitude indicator.||| 4875|X|Which is the correct sequence for recovery from a spiraling, nose low, increasing airspeed, unusual flight attitude?|Reduce power, raise the nose to level attitude, and correct the bank attitude.|Reduce power, correct the bank attitude, and raise the nose to a level attitude.|Increase pitch attitude, reduce power, and level wings.||| 4876|X|Which instruments should be used to make a pitch correction when you have deviated from your assigned altitude?|Manifold pressure gauge and VSI.|Attitude indicator, altimeter, and VSI.|Altimeter and VSI.||| 4877|X|What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from an east heading in the Northern Hemisphere?|The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.|The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.|The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.||| 4878|X|When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?|Decrease the angle of bank.|Decrease the angle of attack.|Increase the angle of bank and/or decrease the angle of attack.||| 4879|X|What would be the indication on the VSI during entry into a 500 FPM actual descent from level flight if the static ports were iced over?|The VSI pointer would remain at zero regardless of the actual rate of descent.|The indication would be in reverse of the actual rate of descent (500 FPM climb).|The initial indication would be a climb, then descent at a rate in excess of 500 FPM.||| 4880|X|How should you preflight check the altimeter prior to an IFR flight?|Set the altimeter to the current altimeter setting. The indication should be within 75 feet of the actual elevation for acceptable accuracy.|Set the altimeter first with 29.92" Hg and then the current altimeter setting. The change in altitude should correspond to the change in setting.|Set the altimeter to the current temperature. With current temperature and the altimeter indication, determine the calibrated altitude to compare with the field elevation.||| 4881|X|Which practical test should be made on the electric gyro instruments prior to starting an engine?|Check that the electrical connections are secure on the back of the instruments.|Turn on the electrical power and listen for any unusual or irregular mechanical noise.|Check that the attitude of the miniature aircraft is wings level before turning on electrical power.||| 4882|X|Prior to starting an engine, you should check the turn and slip indicator to determine if the|ball will move freely from one end of the tube to the other when the aircraft is rocked.|needle indication properly corresponds to the angle of the wings or rotors with the horizon.|needle is approximately centered and the tube is full of fluid.||| 4883|X|What indications should you observe on the turn and slip indicator during taxi?|The ball moves freely opposite the turn, and the needle deflects in the direction of the turn.|The needle deflects in the direction of the turn, but the ball remains centered.|The ball deflects opposite the turn, but the needle remains centered.||| 4884|X|Which instrument indicates the quality of a turn?|Attitude indicator.|Ball of the turn coordinator.|Heading indicator or magnetic compass.||| 4885|X|What pretakeoff check should be made of a vacuum driven heading indicator in preparation for an IFR flight?|After 5 minutes, set the indicator to the magnetic heading of the aircraft and check for proper alignment after taxi turns.|After 5 minutes, check that the heading indicator card aligns itself with the magnetic heading of the aircraft.|Determine that the heading indicator does not precess more than 2° in 5 minutes of ground operation.||| 4886|X|What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from an easterly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?|The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.|The compass will remain on east for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.|The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.||| 4887|X|What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?|The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.|The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.|The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.||| 4888|X|On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360° turn, with a bank of approximately 15°?|90° and 270°.|180° and 0°.|135° through 225°.||| 4889|X|What causes the northerly turning error in a magnetic compass?|Coriolis force at the mid latitudes.|Centrifugal force acting on the compass card.|The magnetic dip characteristic.||| 4890|X|What should be the indication on the magnetic compass when you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a south heading in the Northern Hemisphere?|The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.|The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.|The compass will remain on south for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.||| 4891|X|What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a westerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?|The compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction, then turn to a northerly indication but lagging behind the actual heading of the aircraft.|The compass will remain on a westerly heading for a short time, then gradually catch up to the actual heading of the aircraft.|The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.||| 4892|X|What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the right from a northerly heading in the Northern Hemisphere?|The compass will indicate a turn to the right, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.|The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.|The compass will initially indicate a turn to the left.||| 4893|X|What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a west heading in the Northern Hemisphere?|The compass will remain on west for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.|The compass will indicate the approximate correct magnetic heading if the roll into the turn is smooth.|The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.||| 4894|X|What should be the indication on the magnetic compass as you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a north heading in the Northern Hemisphere?|The compass will indicate a turn to the left, but at a faster rate than is actually occurring.|The compass will initially indicate a turn to the right.|The compass will remain on north for a short time, then gradually catch up to the magnetic heading of the aircraft.||| 4895|X|If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 360°?|1 minute.|2 minutes.|4 minutes.||| 4896|X|If a standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 180°?|2 minutes.|1 minute.|3 minutes.||| 4897|X|If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn clockwise from a heading of 090° to a heading of 180°?|1 minute.|1 minute 30 seconds.|30 seconds.||| 4898|X|During a constant bank level turn, what effect would an increase in airspeed have on the rate and radius of turn?|Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would decrease.|Rate of turn would decrease, and radius of turn would increase.|Rate of turn would increase, and radius of turn would increase.||| 4899|X|The three conditions which determine pitch attitude required to maintain level flight are|airspeed, air density, and aircraft weight.|relative wind, pressure altitude, and vertical lift component.|flightpath, wind velocity, and angle of attack.||| 4900|X|Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an attitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the aircraft rolls out of a|180° turn.|270° turn.|360° turn.||| 4901|X|If a 180° steep turn is made to the right and the aircraft is rolled out to straight and level flight by visual reference, the miniature aircraft will|show a slight climb and turn to the right.|show a slight climb and turn to the left.|show a slight skid and climb to the right.||| 4902|X|One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the|ability to resist precession 90° to any applied force.|deflecting force developed from the angular velocity of the spinning wheel.|resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc.||| 4903|X|If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the right from a heading of 090° to a heading of 270°?|3 minutes.|1 minute.|2 minutes.||| 4904|X|If a standard rate turn is maintained, how much time would be required to turn to the left from a heading of 090° to a heading of 300°?|50 seconds.|40 seconds.|30 seconds.||| 4905|X|If a half standard rate turn is maintained, how long would it take to turn 135°?|1 minute 30 seconds.|1 minute.|1 minute 20 seconds.||| 4906|X|Approximately what percent of the indicated vertical speed should be used to determine the number of feet to lead the level off from a climb to a specific altitude?|10 percent.|25 percent.|20 percent.||| 4907|X|To level off from a descent to a specific altitude, the pilot should lead the level off by approximately|30 percent of the vertical speed.|50 percent of the vertical speed.|10 percent of the vertical speed.||| 4908|X|If, while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following should the pilot expect?|The vertical speed to momentarily show a climb.|The altimeter to read lower than normal.|The vertical speed to momentarily show a descent.||| 4909|X|During flight, if the pitot tube becomes clogged with ice, which of the following instruments would be affected?|The airspeed indicator and the altimeter.|The airspeed indicator, altimeter, and Vertical Speed Indicator.|The airspeed indicator only.||| 4910|X|The local altimeter setting should be used by all pilots in a particular area, primarily to provide for|the cancellation of altimeter error due to nonstandard temperatures aloft.|better vertical separation of aircraft.|more accurate terrain clearance in mountainous areas.||| 4911|X|At an altitude of 6,500 feet MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42" Hg. The pressure altitude would be approximately|7,500 feet.|6,500 feet.|6,000 feet.||| 4912|X|The pressure altitude at a given location is indicated on the altimeter after the altimeter is set to|the current altimeter setting.|29.92" Hg.|the field elevation.||| 4913|X|If the outside air temperature increases during a flight at constant power and at a constant indicated altitude, the true airspeed will|decrease and true altitude will increase.|increase and true altitude will decrease.|increase and true altitude will increase.||| 4914|X|Rate of turn can be increased and radius of turn decreased by|decreasing airspeed and increasing the bank.|decreasing airspeed and shallowing the bank.|increasing airspeed and increasing the bank.||| 4915|X|The primary reason the angle of attack must be increased, to maintain a constant altitude during a coordinated turn, is because the|vertical component of lift has decreased as the result of the bank.|thrust is acting in a different direction, causing a reduction in airspeed and loss of lift.|use of ailerons has increased the drag.||| 4916|X|If severe turbulence is encountered during your IFR flight, the airplane should be slowed to the design maneuvering speed because the|airplane will stall at a lower angle of attack, giving an increased margin of safety.|amount of excess load that can be imposed on the wing will be decreased.|maneuverability of the airplane will be increased.||| 4917|X|When a climb or descent through an inversion or wind shear zone is being performed, the pilot should be alert for which of the following change in airplane performance?|A sudden change in airspeed.|A fast rate of climb and a slow rate of descent.|A sudden surge of thrust.||| 4918|X|When an airplane is accelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a|descent.|right turn.|climb.||| 4919|X|When an airplane is decelerated, some attitude indicators will precess and incorrectly indicate a|climb.|left turn.|descent.||| 4920|X|For maintaining level flight at constant thrust, which instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change?|Altimeter.|VSI.|Attitude indicator.||| 4921|X|The displacement of a turn coordinator during a coordinated turn will|indicate the angle of bank.|remain constant for a given bank regardless of airspeed.|increase as angle of bank increases.||| 4922|X|Altimeter setting is the value to which the scale of the pressure altimeter is set so the altimeter indicates|pressure altitude at field elevation.|pressure altitude at sea level.|true altitude at field elevation.||| 4923|X|Pressure altitude is the altitude read on your altimeter when the instrument is adjusted to indicate height above|ground level.|the standard datum plane.|sea level.||| 4924|X|To enter a constant airspeed descent from level cruising flight, and maintain cruising airspeed, the pilot should|simultaneously reduce power and adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to maintain the cruising airspeed.|first adjust the pitch attitude to a descent using the attitude indicator as a reference, then adjust the power to maintain the cruising airspeed.|first reduce power, then adjust the pitch using the attitude indicator as a reference to establish a specific rate on the VSI.||| 4925|X|To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, the addition of power should be made, assuming a 500 FPM rate of descent, at approximately|100 to 150 feet above the desired altitude.|50 to 100 feet above the desired altitude.|150 to 200 feet above the desired altitude.||| 4926|X|To level off from a descent maintaining the descending airspeed, the pilot should lead the desired altitude by approximately|60 feet.|20 feet.|50 feet.||| 4927|X|During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant|the altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction of movement.|the horizon bar on the attitude indicator is exactly overlapped with the miniature airplane.|a zero rate of climb is indicated on the VSI.||| 4928|X|While cruising at 160 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 130 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it is proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the|attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.|vertical speed indication reaches the predetermined rate of climb.|attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 130 knot climb.||| 4929|X|While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to establish a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb (full panel), it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back elevator pressure until the|attitude indicator, airspeed, and vertical speed indicate a climb.|airspeed indication reaches 160 knots.|attitude indicator shows the approximate pitch attitude appropriate for the 160 knot climb.||| 4930|X|If while in level flight, it becomes necessary to use an alternate source of static pressure vented inside the airplane, which of the following variations in instrument indications should the pilot expect?|The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb and then a descent.|The altimeter will read lower than normal, airspeed lower than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a descent.|The altimeter will read higher than normal, airspeed greater than normal, and the VSI will momentarily show a climb.||| 4931|X|(Refer to figure 144.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that ``2'' would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?|Increase left rudder and increase rate of turn.|Increase left rudder and decrease rate of turn.|Decrease left rudder and decrease angle of bank.||| 4932|X|(Refer to figure 144.) Which illustration indicates a coordinated turn?|3.|1.|2.||| 4933|X|(Refer to figure 144.) Which illustration indicates a skidding turn?|3.|1.|2.||| 4934|X|(Refer to figure 144.) What changes in control displacement should be made so that ``1'' would result in a coordinated standard rate turn?|Increase right rudder and increase rate of turn.|Decrease right rudder and increase angle of bank.|Increase right rudder and decrease rate of turn.||| 4935|X|(Refer to figure 144.) Which illustration indicates a slipping turn?|1.|3.|2.||| 4936|X|(Refer to figure 145.) What is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?|Level the wings, raise the nose of the aircraft to level flight attitude, and obtain desired airspeed.|Reduce power, increase back elevator pressure, and level the wings.|Reduce power, level the wings, bring pitch attitude to level flight.||| 4937|X|(Refer to figure 146.) Identify the system that has failed and determine a corrective action to return the airplane to straight and level flight. |Static/pitot system is blocked; lower the nose and level the wings to level flight attitude by use of attitude indicator.|Electrical system has failed; reduce power, roll left to level wings, and raise the nose to reduce airspeed.|Vacuum system has failed; reduce power, roll left to level wings, and pitchup to reduce airspeed.||| 4938|X|(Refer to figure 147.) Which is the correct sequence for recovery from the unusual attitude indicated?|Level wings, add power, lower nose, descend to original attitude, and heading.|Add power, lower nose, level wings, return to original attitude and heading.|Stop turn by raising right wing and add power at the same time, lower the nose, and return to original attitude and heading.||| 4939|X|(Refer to figure 148.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.|Level turn to left.|Climbing turn to right.|Climbing turn to left.||| 4940|X|(Refer to figure 149.) What is the flight attitude? One system which transmits information to the instruments has malfunctioned.|Straight and level flight.|Level turn to the right.|Level turn to the left.||| 4941|X|(Refer to figure 150.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.|Climbing turn to the right.|Climbing turn to the left.|Descending turn to the right.||| 4942|X|(Refer to figure 151.) What is the flight attitude? One instrument has malfunctioned.|Level turn to the right.|Level turn to the left.|Climbing turn to the right.|||